@Drnaline,
“However, Jesus did quote the Scripture, regularly.”
But not the ‘scripture’ that you do. Yours is quite a bit different, after hundreds, if not thousands, of years of scholarly redaction. Also, when and where did Jesus ever refer to the ‘Bible’, per se. And, even if He did at some point, WHICH translation did He refer to. I’m very curious.
“If you look at Him from the standpoint of the Gospel of John, Jesus was/is the Word. John 1:14, "The Word became flesh and took up residence among us. We observed His glory, the glory as the One and Only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth."
Okay. BUT, what is meant by ‘Word’? Again, is ‘Word’ the Bible, Old Testament scriptures of antiquity, what Jesus Himself said, what His Father said before Jesus’ public ministry, what the Catholic Church picked and chose to be the New Testament gospel, from around AD 150 to AD 390, when it finally agreed on a certain set of writings (which all Western people thereby inherited, like it or not), while rejecting many others? Also, when Jesus was alive, BEFORE the gospel of John was written (estimated to have been crafted around AD 100), was He even then a ‘Word’, or a man, or God, or the Bible in the flesh? If John were written around AD 100, and the New Testament compiled around AD 390, by the Catholic church (which it was), what did the authors of John specifically understand to be the ‘the Word’? After all, the Bible, in present form, still had 190 years to go before being compiled in official, Catholic form, and then 1,127 years to go before the Protestants got their hands on it, and changed it extensively themselves, to reflect Reformation thinking. Again, literal interpretations just don’t stand up against detailed, historical scrutiny.