If Jesus is God, how is he called God's only begotten son?

One time, when I ate too much pizza, I exclaimed "My god." Obviously, that meant pizza was my god.
Another time, when my son nearly died at birth and then lived, I said "My God."

Truly, at neither time did I expect my words to be taken literally. Thomas was merely reacting to an experience which would have had any of us exclaim "My lord and my God."

BTW, if you can't see the parallel between the scripture in proverbs and the identity of Jesus, I don't know what to add. I'm just not smart enough.

If there is a God (I don't believe there is), then there is either more than one God, or there is only the one God.

If there is only one God, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit cannot all be Gods unless they are different names for the same one God.

Either "Father = Son = Holy Spirit," in the same way that "agrote = Ben" - in which case, if Jesus buys a pack of chewing gum, then the Father buys a pack of chewing gum, and the Holy Spirit buys a pack of chewing gum.

Or, the father, the son and the holy spirit are three different things, which may or may not be Gods.

So there are only three possibilities, as I see it:
1) F = S = HS
2) F ≠ S ≠ HS
3) One or more of [F, S, HS] does not exist

The the Christian idea of the trinity does not seem to fit any of these.

neologist wrote:

agrote wrote:

The bible teaches that F = God, JC = God, and HS = God.

BZZZZT! The bible does not teach that JC=God or HS=God. Preachers teach that.

Well, to be honest I'm not entirely sure. I was just quoting real life - if what he says about trinitarians is correct, then trinitarians have a problem.

neologist wrote:

agrote wrote:

The bible teaches that F = God, JC = God, and HS = God.

BZZZZT! The bible does not teach that JC=God or HS=God. Preachers teach that.

-----The Bible does teach the Holy Spirit is God.

Consider:

3 But Peter said: "An·a·ni´as, why has Satan emboldened you to play false to the holy spirit and to hold back secretly some of the price of the field? 4 As long as it remained with you did it not remain yours, and after it was sold did it not continue in your control? Why was it that you purposed such a deed as this in your heart? You have played false, not to men, but to God."

<<<Or>
GAHHHHHHHHHHH
NO
Do not use a corrupt version of the bible.
GAHHHHHHHHHHH

What in the world is PLAY FALSE> OMG>

Use the GOOD WORD.

Act 5:3 But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Ghost, and to keep back [part] of the price of the land?

Act 5:4 Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God.

HE LIED TO GOD AKA THE HOLY GHOST.
Not played false.
LOL
<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<HE>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
Which is a sin.
WHich means he SINED against the Holy GHost aka GOD.

Man I hate these new junk bibles that are out there.
YUCK.

John 14:28 wrote:

Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.

Perhaps my human brain cannot comprehend this cosmic mathematics but isn't he saying Father > Jesus. Not Father = Jesus.

9 For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every [other] name,

Scott likes the repitition of his own opinion. That figures.

Scott likes the repitition of his own opinion. That figures.

Actually the concept of a multile being God goes all the way back to Genesis, and If as I believe the bible is God's word then all Pagan beliefs are nothing but copies of the truth.

neologist wrote:

Denying that Jesus is one and the same with God does not deny his divine nature. Please, if you are going to reference scripture, provide chapter and verse.

Yes it does .

God says: I am God and there is no else neither shall there be.

Either Jesus is God.
Or he is not God and did not create a darn thing and therefor is a liar.

Your choice.

neologist wrote:

I suppose we should rewrite Matthew 27:46 " Oh me; Oh my; Why have I forsaken myself?"
I wonder. To whom did Jesus pray?
BTW, many bibles render John 1:1 as "the Word was divine."

No he was prayin to the father who is God too.
I am so sick of hearing that question.
If Jesus was God then who was he praying to?
DUH.
The Father.
Who is just as much God as Jesus is.

neologist wrote:

You did well. My own bible reads "Let all God's angels do obeisance to him", which is essentially the same thing, so I stand corrected. I'm still not buying an identity between Jesus and God. In fact the very sentence negates the assertion of co-eternal.

I must say I am enjoying this discourse. As Solomon said in Proverbs 27:17, "By iron, iron itself is sharpened. So one man sharpens the face of another."

That is not what it says my friend.
Here you go.

Pro 27:17 Iron sharpeneth iron; so a man sharpeneth the countenance of his friend.

These two verses clearly show how bad the new bibles are.

That verse you quoted has words added that don't even exist in the original manuscripts. Its the same problem you get when you run into John 1:1 that bible just has to go and add an "a" in there where there is no "a".

John 1:1 Reads.
Jhn 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
This is MONOTHEISM


NOT AS
Jhn 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a God.
This is POLYTHEISM

See the difference yet.????

"The Logos [Word] was divine." (A New Translation of the Bible)
"The Word was a god." (The New Testament in an Improved Version)
"The Word was with God and shared his nature." (The Translator's New Testament)
If you were to take the trouble to look at an interlinear translation, you can clearly see the case difference in the words translated 'god' at John 1:1.

Here are a few examples of translations reading otherwise:

"The Logos [Word] was divine." (A New Translation of the Bible)
"The Word was a god." (The New Testament in an Improved Version)
"The Word was with God and shared his nature." (The Translator's New Testament)
If you were to take the trouble to look at an interlinear translation, you can clearly see the case difference in the words translated 'god' at John 1:1.

Please read this web site and see what I mean about corrupted.

http://www.graceway.com/articles/article_025.html

From http://www.studylight.org/isb/bible.cgi?section=2&t=kjv&ot=bhs&nt=tr&query=God&st=201&pn=11

In the beginning was (5713) the Word, and the Word was (5713) with God, and the Word was (5713) God.
en arxh hn o logov kai o logov hn prov ton yeon kai yeov hn o logov


en arxh hn o logov,
In the beginning was the word,

kai o logov hn prov ton yeon, (Theon: accusative case: the God)
and the word was with God,

kai yeov hn o logov. (Theos: nominative case: a god)
and the word was God.
{and God was the word: Berry, 1972}

Check it out for yourself.

I appreciate your making me dig into this.

Acts 12:22:
And the people gave a shout (5707) , saying, It is the voice of a god, and not of a man.
o de dhmov epefwnei yeou fwnh kai ouk anyrwpou (a god)

2 Cor 4:4:
In whom the god of this world hath blinded (5656) the minds of them which believe not . .
en oiv o yeov tou aiwnov toutou etuflwsen ta nohmata twn apistwn . . . (Satan)

Phillipians 3:19:
Whose end is destruction, whose God is their belly. . .
wn to telov apwleia wn o yeov h koilia . .
(god is their belly)