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What are your pet peeves re English usage?

 
 
Francis
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 09:38 am
Clary wrote:
Koh Samui has a VERY pretty airport.


And very good massage parlors like in Lamai beach.
0 Replies
 
Noddy24
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 01:07 pm
Scoats--

"I/we should have run...." counts as professional jargon and this profession prefers the Editorial "We".
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 01:16 pm
Clary wrote:
And apropos of the personal pronouns - how often does one hear "He gave them to you and I"? More times than "you and me", I bet


I'd not worry about him if i were you.

Favorite preposition buster for confusing non-native speakers:

"Daddy, where's that book you brought up to read to me out of?
0 Replies
 
SCoates
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 02:24 pm
McTag wrote:
It seems okay to me. Could you explain, SCoates, what you think is wrong with it?
"Run" can be both transative and intransative.

I have noticed, when you (I) think a lot about a word or a phrase, it starts to seem a bit weird, even when there is nothing originally wrong with it.


Well, I can only quote one of you, but kep in mind I don't know a lot of the rules or terminology for verb usage--I just go by what I hear.

In other cases, putting "could have" before a verb changes the verb to past tense. At least that was my impression. For example, you can't say "I could have jump." So why doesn't "run" change to "ran" in the same instance?

I was deliberately vague with my initial post on the subject; one must be careful when wading into pedant infested water. Smile
0 Replies
 
onyxelle
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 02:30 pm
(back on topic this is)

Irregardless used in place of "Regardless"

I won't betray the trust of these FL attorneys that misuse that with such silvery ease...
0 Replies
 
Merry Andrew
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 02:42 pm
onyxelle wrote:
(back on topic this is)

Irregardless used in place of "Regardless"

I won't betray the trust of these FL attorneys that misuse that with such silvery ease...


Yeah, that drives me nuts. It's a non-word. And I've heard well educated people use it blithely.
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 02:45 pm
Did I really spell transitive that way? Gosh. Embarrassed Sorry.
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 02:49 pm
SCoates wrote:
McTag wrote:
It seems okay to me. Could you explain, SCoates, what you think is wrong with it?
"Run" can be both transitive and intransitive.

I have noticed, when you (I) think a lot about a word or a phrase, it starts to seem a bit weird, even when there is nothing originally wrong with it.


Well, I can only quote one of you, but kep in mind I don't know a lot of the rules or terminology for verb usage--I just go by what I hear.

In other cases, putting "could have" before a verb changes the verb to past tense. At least that was my impression. For example, you can't say "I could have jump." So why doesn't "run" change to "ran" in the same instance?

I was deliberately vague with my initial post on the subject; one must be careful when wading into pedant infested water. Smile


I'll need to wait for the technicians to analyse this, but it is to do with the correct participle, I think: I ran, but I have run. "Ran" is the past tense, but "run" is the past participle. (as well as being the present tense)
0 Replies
 
Merry Andrew
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 03:06 pm
McTag, as usual, is quite right.
0 Replies
 
SCoates
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 03:11 pm
Thanks.
0 Replies
 
Noddy24
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 03:48 pm
Also an edition is a "press run" not a "press ran".
0 Replies
 
shepaints
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 05:36 pm
Merry Andrew and Oxynelle....

guilty as charged:
"Irregardless used in place of "Regardless" "
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 May, 2005 11:13 pm
Noddy24 wrote:
Also an edition is a "press run" not a "press ran".


Yes but Noddy, that's using it as a noun, which may be confusing in this context.

We have the "Great North Run" which competes with the London Marathon, too.

Smile
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Wed 11 May, 2005 01:20 am
SCoates wrote:


Well, I can only quote one of you, but kep in mind I don't know a lot of the rules or terminology for verb usage--I just go by what I hear.

In other cases, putting "could have" before a verb changes the verb to past tense. At least that was my impression. For example, you can't say "I could have jump." So why doesn't "run" change to "ran" in the same instance?


"... putting "could have" before a verb changes the verb to past tense."

Actually, <could> doesn't make it past tense, SCoates; using the perfect [have + PP] makes it so these types of sentences refer to past situations. Modals verbs, such as <could> only carry modality into a sentence.



SCoates wrote:
I'd like some feedback on a certain phrase.

"We should have run." As in, we should have run the article in this morning's news.


Regarding this, did it concern you at all that you seemed to be missing an object or was that not a problem for you/this situation?
0 Replies
 
Vivien
 
  1  
Reply Wed 11 May, 2005 01:58 am
run seems to be able to be used as past

His race is run

run, over, finished
0 Replies
 
PhilAster
 
  1  
Reply Wed 11 May, 2005 05:44 am
yo jtt Smile how r u doin

check out my last post plz

phil
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Wed 11 May, 2005 07:20 am
PhilAster wrote:
yo jtt Smile how r u doin

check out my last post plz

phil


I saw it, Phil. Interesting observation.
0 Replies
 
SCoates
 
  1  
Reply Wed 11 May, 2005 02:28 pm
JTT wrote:

SCoates wrote:
I'd like some feedback on a certain phrase.

"We should have run." As in, we should have run the article in this morning's news.


Regarding this, did it concern you at all that you seemed to be missing an object or was that not a problem for you/this situation?


What do you mean by "missing an object"?
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Wed 11 May, 2005 02:44 pm
JTT wrote:
PhilAster wrote:
yo jtt Smile how r u doin

check out my last post plz

phil


I saw it, Phil. Interesting observation.


It was to do with the study of English (or other language) as a science, was it not.

I suppose that while literature and other artistic endeavours using language (poetry, drama etc) are studied under the heading "Arts" there are other facets of language studies (linguistics, phonetics, etc) which are more properly grouped under the heading "Science".
I've the feeling this could be better put, but is intended to be helpful. Please correct any mistake or add to it if desired.

Am I correct in thinking that the study of language as a science is a fairly new thing, or at least that significant developments in it have only fairly recently been made?

I speak as a mere "Rude Mechanical" engineer.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Wed 11 May, 2005 04:20 pm
SCoates wrote:
JTT wrote:

SCoates wrote:
I'd like some feedback on a certain phrase.

"We should have run." As in, we should have run the article in this morning's news.


Regarding this, did it concern you at all that you seemed to be missing an object or was that not a problem for you/this situation?


What do you mean by "missing an object"?


I meant as follows, SCoates.

We should have run [it].

We should have run [the article].
0 Replies
 
 

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