@georgeob1,
Every now and then here on A2K, you have a nice moment where you lay a little trap for someone, and when you get back to the computer later, you're surprised and happy to see that they have walked into it.
Quote:And neither have you offered any supporting evidence for your rather obviously false contentions.
This is a lie. I have linked to many scholarly articles, discussion and news pieces over the years that offer exactly that evidence. You simply refuse to read them or discuss what is said within them. I know this is true, because you've told me exactly that on more than one occasion.
I'm going to do it again right now, and this time, please pay attention.
Just to show you how easy it would have been for you to look this data up yourself before writing something so false, I'll tell you exactly how I found this: I googled the question, 'What percentage of Sub-prime loans went to low-income buyers?' and the question 'Is the CRA responsible for the mortgage crisis?'
I found a lot of different articles on the subject, but I skipped most of them because I didn't want you to be able to fall back on your usual dodge of sneering at 'blog posts' or an article from the NYT or Washington Post. So I found this:
http://dallasfed.org/ca/bcp/2009/bcp0901.cfm
This links to the results of a study by the Dallas Fed entitled,
The CRA and Subprime Lending: Discerning the Difference
Most of the data I present below can be found at the above link.
Quote:Now what does this rather strange and ill-defined phrase really mean? The fact is the CRA applied to all lenders and direct ed them to provide specified fractions of their loans in all zip codes to people reporting incomes below the mean. Moreover HUD guidelines to Fannie and Freddy specified minimum fractions of their loans to subprime borrowers. This is all a matter of public record.
It's not a matter of public record; it's perfectly false. The CRA did
not apply to all lenders. In fact, the CRA only applies to banking institutions who are insured by the FDIC - banks and savings associations. Mortgage brokerage companies (such as Countrywide) were not required to comply with CRA lending requirements.
The below is from the Dallas Fed link above.
Quote:There appears to be a direct correlation between the quality of subprime loans and the degree of regulatory oversight. Nondepository mortgage providers such as mortgage lenders and brokers are regulated by 50 different state banking supervisors instead of a federal body responsible for comprehensive oversight. Comptroller of the Currency John Dugan reported that these companies “originated the overwhelming preponderance of toxic subprime mortgages” and these loans “account for a disproportionate percentage of defaults and foreclosures nationwide, with glaring examples in the metropolitan areas hardest hit by the foreclosure crisis.”[12]
I'd also suggest you read the text of the CRA before making such bold assertions that are completely wrong:
http://www.fdic.gov/regulations/laws/rules/6500-2515.html
Quote:SEC. 803. For the purpose of this title--
(1) the term "appropriate Federal financial supervisory agency" means--
(A) the Comptroller of the Currency with respect to national banks and Federal savings associations (the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation);
(B) the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System with respect to State chartered banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System, bank holding companies, and savings and loan holding companies;
(C) the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation with respect to State chartered banks and savings banks which are not members of the Federal Reserve System and the deposits of which are insured by the Corporation, and State savings associations (the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation).
(2) the term "regulated financial institution" means an insured depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act);
So, yeah. Not correct. What you call 'a matter of public record' is what I see written on right-wing blogs and in the WSJ editorial page. But it isn't true.
Regarding whether or not most subprime and/or 'toxic' loans went to the middle and upper classes, or that loans to these groups were responsible for the financial crisis in any way:
Quote:CRA Analysis
The Federal Reserve Board researched whether the CRA played a substantial role in the subprime loan crisis.
Its staff analysis of 2006 Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) data and other sources concludes that the CRA did not contribute to or cause this crisis.
According to the analysis:
No major changes have been made to the CRA or its enforcement since 1995. The subprime crisis was triggered by poorly performing mortgage loans originated between 2004 and 2007. This chronological gap weakens the contention that the CRA is a major cause of the crisis.
Contrary to the widely held perception that most higher-priced loans were made to lower-income groups targeted by the CRA, 55 percent of higher-priced loan originations went to middle- and upper-income borrowers or borrowers in middle- and upper-income neighborhoods in 2005 and 2006.[14]
Only 6 percent of higher-priced loan originations made by banking institutions and their affiliates in 2005 and 2006 went to lower-income borrowers or borrowers in lower-income neighborhoods within CRA assessment areas (Table 2).[15] This was calculated by taking the number of higher-priced lower-income loans made by banks and affiliates in their assessment areas and dividing it by the total number of higher-priced loans made by these institutions.
If the proportion were high, it would suggest that banks were trying to originate a large percentage of higher-priced lower-income loans in areas that would earn them CRA credit. The result suggests that banks were not trying to target these areas.
Mortgage purchase data counter the notion that the CRA indirectly created an incentive for independent mortgage companies to make higher-priced lower-income loans. In 2006, banking institutions bought only about 9 percent of independent mortgage companies’ loans; 15 percent of those loans were higher-priced loans to lower-income borrowers or neighborhoods.[16]
The CRA does not appear to have an impact on delinquencies. The Board report compared 90-day-plus delinquency rates of subprime and Alt-A loans in ZIP codes just above and below the CRA eligibility threshold.[17] If the rates were different between these types of ZIP codes, the data would suggest that the CRA might have an effect on delinquency rates. The rates were almost identical (Table 3).
Delinquency rates were high across all neighborhoods, not just those that were lower income (Table 4). While 90-day-plus delinquency rates of lower-income neighborhoods were the highest, these ZIP codes accounted for a relatively small share of all households—about one-fifth.[18] So, the incidence of foreclosure may be quite high in lower-income areas but not be a major contributor to the national foreclosure crisis.[19]
So, yeah. Once again, you are Not Correct. That damn public record!
If you disagree with any of this, and want to assert you are right, I dare you to link to evidence showing that it's true. Not just assertions.
Quote:I don't presume to know your motives. However what you have written about them looks a lot like class envy to me.
This is the second time today that you've written something that supports my argument, instead of attacking it. I appreciate it.
Quote:You have also asserted that the magnitude of public debt doesn't matter. Even the tax proposals you and your, now badly deflated, "leader" wouldn't significantly dent our current deficits much less reduce our massive public debt and entitlement guarantees. You simply aren't being serious here.
The tax proposals
I propose most certainly address those issues, because - as I have told you many times - I would raise taxes on all groups by letting all the Clinton tax cuts expire.
Regarding my various calls to borrow more money, I would point out that our Bond rates are historically low - to the point where. We would make money by borrowing that money, paying less over time than inflation would devalue the currency.
I also think that it's pretty clear by now that austerity doesn't help countries who are in a recession. I'll outsource this to the Krug:
Quote: Anti-Keynesians assured us that budget deficits would send interest rates soaring; Keynesian analysis said they’d stay low as long as the economy remained far from full employment. Guess who was right?
Also, there are some features of the approach that can be tested separately. Keynesianism isn’t just about sticky prices, but it does generally assume sticky prices — and there is overwhelming evidence, from a variety of sources, that prices are indeed sticky.
Also also: there’s plenty of evidence that monetary policy can move output and employment — and it’s very hard to devise a model in which that is true that doesn’t also say that fiscal policy can be effective, especially when you’re up against the zero lower bound.
Second, while we don’t have a lot of postwar experience with fiscal stimulus, we do have a lot of experience with anti-stimulus, that is, austerity — and that turns out to be reliably contractionary. Again, it’s hard to think of a model in which austerity is contractionary but stimulus isn’t expansionary.
Cycloptichorn