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How long will christians take this???

 
 
real life
 
  1  
Reply Sun 25 Mar, 2007 10:10 pm
Eorl wrote:
.....you are passing along something someone else made up, perhaps a church?


And you came to your views in a vacuum? You never heard ANYONE articulate the views you now hold?

Please.

Eorl wrote:
By what right do you, or anyone, interpret for others what the words of the bible actually mean?


By what right do you?
0 Replies
 
Eorl
 
  1  
Reply Sun 25 Mar, 2007 10:13 pm
real life wrote:
Eorl wrote:
.....you are passing along something someone else made up, perhaps a church?


And you came to your views in a vacuum? You never heard ANYONE articulate the views you now hold?

Please.


Sure, but I don't claim my views are the Laws of God, just my opinion, original and borrowed.

Quote:
Eorl wrote:
By what right do you, or anyone, interpret for others what the words of the bible actually mean?


By what right do you?


I don't.
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Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 02:27 am
How does the Bible uphold that...

1) wrath is a sin.
2) God is perfect; infoulable; without sin.
3) God has wrath.

I want the exact verse that addresses this contradiction.

Direct question, direct answer requested.
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Run 4 fun
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 06:24 am
1) Wrath is a sin for humans
2) God is far different, both in nature and situation from humans and what is unjust for a man may be perfectly just for God.
3) Wrath is in no way a sin for omniscient, all-deserving God.
4) God's perfect sinlessness is unaffected
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Run 4 fun
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 06:28 am
Eorl, the issue brought up was about the Bible, against the Bible, so use of the Bible is warranted. And I'm not interpreting. Confused I'm telling you what it says.
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real life
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 09:19 am
Run 4 fun wrote:
1) Wrath is a sin for humans


Wrath (anger) is not always a sin for humans.

It depends on what you are angry at, or about.

For example, to feel anger over injustice, or the mistreatment of others is not a sin.
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Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 10:48 am
So you can oofer no text? Nobody can directy answer my question?

Game. Set. Match.

I suppose God can Lust as well then because he is indifferent? Steal?

The fact is, that the Bible fails my test.
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Run 4 fun
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 11:22 am
"The Lord has given and the Lord has taken away." God cannot steal, because everything belongs to Him.
Lust is imperfect whereas God is perfect. So God does not lust, but rather gives perfect love.
The Bible has failed no test because the test was flawed. Your test proves absolutely nothing.
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Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 11:52 am
Run 4 fun wrote:
"The Lord has given and the Lord has taken away." God cannot steal, because everything belongs to Him.
Lust is imperfect whereas God is perfect. So God does not lust, but rather gives perfect love.
The Bible has failed no test because the test was flawed. Your test proves absolutely nothing.


I'm sorry, but that makes no sense.

All this to justify that God can have wrath? The test is sound, the text is flawed. Even the scripture you posted to address theft contradicts your own post. If the lord givith, then how can everyting belong to him? If we never really have anything, how can he take it away? Lust by the book certainly is imperfect, but by justifying that God can have wrath because he is indifferent, means the same for lust.

The test is sound. I still have ot seen any scriture to explain the double standard of why God can exercise wrath, yet is perfect and wrath is a sin.

I can sense that this is frustrating to you, but I'm being honest. The bible is flawed. I understand your desire to be loyal to it, I imagine you have a very emotional bond wit the text, but you can't trivialize my arguement.

Take some time, find a verse to discuss, I'll be patient. But until then, I've seen nothing to convince me otherwise. You can't expect your current arguement to be convincing.
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Run 4 fun
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 04:05 pm
No, I'm not frustrated. Razz

Say a bank gives you a loan. You have the money and it was given to you, but it still belongs to the bank. It's not a perfect analogy, but it answers the objection to my post.

Oh yeah, and I never said "indifferent". You did. I said: "2) God is far different, both in nature and situation from humans and what is unjust for a man may be perfectly just for God.
3) Wrath is in no way a sin for omniscient, all-deserving God."

You put in indifference. Confused

I do not need to sight scripture when simple logic can suffice.
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123rock
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 04:40 pm
Cyracuz wrote:
farmerman... LOL


The earth is flat. Therefore God exists.


LOL! That's almost as funny as the rest of the retardo posts I've read on this thread:

St.Thomas Aquinas', Summa Theologiae wrote:

First Part, Q1, Reply to Objection2:

Sciences are differentiated according to the various means through which knowledge is obtained. For the astronomer and the physicist both may prove the same conclusion: that the earth, for instance, is round: the astronomer by means of mathematics (i.e. abstracting from matter), but the physicist by means of matter itself.
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Eorl
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 06:25 pm
Run 4 fun wrote:
Eorl, the issue brought up was about the Bible, against the Bible, so use of the Bible is warranted. And I'm not interpreting. Confused I'm telling you what it says.


You refuse to get it. Yes, you told me what it says. But then you presumed to tell me what it MEANS. That is the problem.
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Run 4 fun
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 07:23 pm
It means what it says. You're confusing me. Jesus used Adam and Eve in a teaching of the standards of marriage. They are repeatedly referred to as the original parents of humankind, and Biblically, to be good examples of parents, they must be married (fornicators are not Biblically good examples of parents). Is there a problem?
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djjd62
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 07:28 pm
to answer bretter's original question

28 pages worth, so far
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Run 4 fun
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 07:39 pm
Funny funny! Very Happy
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 08:29 pm
Run 4 fun wrote:
It means what it says. You're confusing me. Jesus used Adam and Eve in a teaching of the standards of marriage. They are repeatedly referred to as the original parents of humankind, and Biblically, to be good examples of parents, they must be married (fornicators are not Biblically good examples of parents). Is there a problem?


So tell, me, biblical bright boy--when Lot screwed his daughters after the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, was that fornication? By your criterion, Lot was not a good parent, n'est-ce pas? Is there a problem?
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 08:33 pm
By the way, Run 4 Fun, give us a scriptural citation (the verb is "to cite," not "to sight"--it ain't like you've suddenly seen the Bobble at a distance) for your claim that your boy Hey-Zeus used Adam and Eve in a "teaching" of the standards of marriage.

Try to shoot for direct and unambiguous this time, K?
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Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 08:48 pm
Run 4 fun wrote:
No, I'm not frustrated. Razz

Say a bank gives you a loan. You have the money and it was given to you, but it still belongs to the bank. It's not a perfect analogy, but it answers the objection to my post.

No, it's not a perfect analogy. The analogy is the politically incorrect childhood phrase "indian giving."

Forgive the insertion of the word "indifferent," it frankly helped your arguement and made God purely objective in nature. I was willing to allow for that assumption.
Quote:

I do not need to sight scripture when simple logic can suffice.

But it does not logically follow that...

Quote:
God is far different, both in nature and situation from humans and what is unjust for a man may be perfectly just for God.


God is perfect and cannot sin, because he can define what sin would be for himself?

Where is the scripture to support any of this? don't you think something like this would be worth writing down?

direct question, direct answer requested.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 08:52 pm
Setanta wrote:

But we have an even more perverted claim from MOAN here, one which is typical of her co-religionists. That is to assert that because it is alleged that the putative Jesus was non-violent, then the religion of the followers of the putative Jesus is non-violent.

But several problems arise with that, and all of them are scriptural. One glaring example is Leviticus. An exegesis of the text of Leviticus which asserts that that book predicts the coming of the Messiah, and that the Messiah is Jesus has been crucial in christian theology for almost 2000 years. Yet these same christians will attempt to avoid those embarrassing portions of Leviticus, of which Chapter 20, verse 13 is the most glaring example of the hatred embodied in the Old Testament: If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them. The price of homosexuality is to be deah.


This was before the New Covenant. I explain below.

Quote:

The entire 20th Chaper of Leviticus deals with human behavior, much of it sexual, and the perverse nature of many of it's injunctions is appalling: 20:18 And if a man shall lie with a woman having her sickness, and shall uncover her nakedness; he hath discovered her fountain, and she hath uncovered the fountain of her blood: and both of them shall be cut off from among their people.--sexual relations with a menstruating woman call for both participants to be ostracized. Ostracism and death, claims that god will make men and women reproductively barren--these are the common penalties which Leviticus outlines for the crimes it declares in Chapter 20.


It is odd that the Old Testament ostracizes for intercourse with a woman on her period. Is it possible that this was a later insertion (as all violent verses that justify Israel by God's orders may be?), because there are known NT additions such as Mark 16:9-20, Acts 8:36, etc, so the argument which holds for contextual reliability, that Scripture was too sacred to be disturbed, does not apply. However, the Old Testament was written primarily to a Jewish audience, whereas the gospels and Pauline epistles were distributed throughout the known world, both Jew and Gentile, and there have been pseudo-Pauline and other epistles and virtually every respectable apostolic Christian author's name has been used in a forgery, so it is not unlikely that sects with personal agendas could have reworked portions for various reasons which have now been passed into our modern Bibles. However, if you are to read that the reason they are cut off is due to the "exposure of her flow" you'd understand that this is not too distant from fornication about which Leviticus 20 says nothing. Is it also possible that the ancients knew that a woman couldn't get pregnant during this period? It's not unlikely, but if so this could mean that Leviticus 20 was saying that fornication was sexual intercourse regardless of whether the woman became pregnant or so.

Quote:

Christians try to dance around this, claiming that Jesus and his creed are different. Yet they are contradicted by their own scripture. Matthew, Chaper 5, Verses 17 and 18 read: Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
This is not some of the law, this is not those portions of the law which will not embarrass present day christians--it is every jot and tittle of the law.

The Old Testament runs red with the blood of innocents, and resounds to the roar of the homicidal maniac Jehovah calling for the blood of "enemies," including women and children, and even the livestock of those he deems unrighteous. Christians like to selectively read the Old Testament, though, and maintain their innocence by claiming that it was superceded by the loving nature of Jesus. But Jesus does not condemn homosexuality, so they have to lean on passages such as the one in Leviticus to spew forth their hatred of homosexuals.


This seems like a good place to explain the violence and Mosaic law of the Old Testament. If you would notice Leviticus 20:22-24: "'Keep all my decrees and laws and follow them, so that the land where I am bringing you to live may not vomit you out. 23 You must not live according to the customs of the nations I am going to drive out before you. Because they did all these things, I abhorred them. 24 But I said to you, "You will possess their land; I will give it to you as an inheritance, a land flowing with milk and honey." I am the LORD your God, who has set you apart from the nations.'" The Amalekites, Canaanites and most notably Amorites were engaged in various practices, among which Leviticus 20 would be. That included bestiality, incest, rape, homosexuality, child sacrifice, and more. These practices were not however restricted to only the groups located in Palestine. There is artistic evidence of ancient the Egyptians, Greeks, and Romans, who may not have indulged to the level that they did, but were certainly not unfamiliar with some of these acts. Nevertheless, Leviticus 20 is clear that these harsh laws were implicated for two reasons: 1) To separate the Jewish community from the bordering cultures so that they are not absorbed by immorality and the Covenant with Abraham is destroyed; 2) So that the Jews are presentable and holy before God with respect to the Law.

Now, regarding Jesus' preaching of peace and nonviolence and the various warmongering ordered by God, it has long been noticed. Marcion rejected all of the Bible as inspired except for the Gospel of Luke, unable to reconcile the love of Jesus with the violence in some passages of the Old Testament. However, in not following Leviticus 20 today, besides the fact that the Old Testament strictly acknowledges that it was meant only for the Jewish community, it is not that Jesus has removed anything from the Law. Jesus' New Covenant further revealed the nature of the Law. Paul explains this in his epistles that the Law that we do is the one in our hearts, most notably in his solution to circumcision. Philosophical as it may sound, the inner desires of the person, regardless of whether they are reflected by the outside or not, are what the New Covenant calls for as to be observed. The blood of Leviticus has become the blood of the second death. Nevertheless, it is true that God is responsible for quite a number of deaths, including about four genocides by today's standard, however the answer to this is more theological.

Quote:

I have no illusions that people like MOAN and other christian supremacists will never acknowledge it--but their religion is as deep-dyed in the blood of innocents as is any other religion. In fact, few religions have ever been as murderous as has christianity. Their excuse will be that "true" christians do not commit such acts, and they will deny that any violent injunctions of the Old Testament applies to them--although they will readily enough quote the Old Testament when it otherwise suits their bigotry.

I see absolutely no difference between christian violence and muslim violence. I no more buy the excuses which christians make for that violence than any offered by the muslims. For all such christians, i have another verse of their beloved scripture:

Matthew, 23:27: Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye are like unto whited sepulchres, which indeed appear beautiful outward, but are within full of dead men's bones, and of all uncleanness.

The canting fundamentalist christians who surround us are the Pharisees of our day.


Out of curiousity, why are you an atheist yet so passionately defend Islam? There are verses which you ignored such as 9:5.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 08:55 pm
Setanta wrote:
Run 4 fun wrote:
It means what it says. You're confusing me. Jesus used Adam and Eve in a teaching of the standards of marriage. They are repeatedly referred to as the original parents of humankind, and Biblically, to be good examples of parents, they must be married (fornicators are not Biblically good examples of parents). Is there a problem?


So tell, me, biblical bright boy--when Lot screwed his daughters after the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, was that fornication? By your criterion, Lot was not a good parent, n'est-ce pas? Is there a problem?


Technically Lot's daughters screwed him after they got him drunk to "preserve his seed."
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