1
   

How long will christians take this???

 
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 08:59 pm
Yeah, right . . . here, pull the other leg.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 09:05 pm
123rock wrote:
Out of curiousity, why are you an atheist yet so passionately defend Islam?


That's a strawman, and a crock of ****. I only pointed out the unreasoning hatred and fear of Islam displayed by bible-thumpers. It was no passionate defense, it was very carefully written, and i cited my sources. I have no brief to defend Islam.

In fact, when the Muslim version of bible-thumpers come around here to start peddling their horsiepoop about Islam, i always greet them by asking them why i should find admirable a man who was illiterate, a polygamist who married a string of rich widows, and who capped it off by marrying and matrimonially raping a nine year old girl. I get about as much common sense and love out the Muslims for that as i get out of the Christians when i point out their bullshit to them.
0 Replies
 
Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 09:18 pm
Set, you are fair.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Mar, 2007 10:12 pm
Pauligirl wrote:

Not really. James and the other apostles were not friends of Paul.

When Jesus came, many Jews wondered if he was the reincarnation of one of the prophets. Some wondered the same thing about John the Baptist. Jesus affirmed to His disciples that John the Baptist was the reincarnation of Elijah the Prophet.


It's not that Paul and the other apostles weren't friends. He did get into a big argument with Peter, but he was the one who went to Jerusalem as per Acts in order to get orders from them. From there on he was going to preach to "Asia," or present-day Asia-minor, but the Holy Spirit in Acts tells him to go and preach to Greece and Macedonia. As for Jesus, he didn't affirm that John the Baptist was the reincarnation of anything, but that he is the prophet who is greater than him, and the greatest one until then.

Quote:

The beginning of Christianity stands two figures: Jesus and Paul. Jesus is regarded by Christians as the founder of their religion, in that the events of his life comprise the foundation story of Christianity; but Paul is regarded as the great interpreter of Jesus' mission, who explained, in a way that Jesus himself never did, how Jesus' life and death fitted into a cosmic scheme of salvation, stretching from the creation of Adam to the end of time. The doctrines of Christianity come mostly from the teaching of Paul, who claimed to be a Pharisee who rejected his Judaism and converted to his vision of Christ, thereby writing or influencing most the books chosen for the New Testament. There was in fact three main early churches, those of Paul, those of the Gnostics, and the Jewish-Christians sometimes called Ebionites. (Meaning "poor men?")


If you really believe that the Gnostics were an early church, I'd say to recheck your sources. The earliest gnosticism of any kind is early 2nd century. As for the Ebionites, they weren't really Christians since they rejected the Godhood of Jesus, but were more of a sect of early Christianity who emerged in the late 1st century. Paul was most definitely a Pharisee. He was a hellenistic jew born in Tarsus, and his intimate knowledge of the Sadducees and Pharisees shows that he must have had a high religious rank, such as when he causes a controversy over the final resurrection of all bodies amongst them.

Quote:

Jesus' actual apostles in the gospels are often portrayed as doubters and even stupid, never quite understanding what Jesus is saying. Their importance in the origins of Christianity, are at best marginalized. For example, we find immediately after Jesus' death that the leader of the Jerusalem Church is Jesus' brother James. (Acts) In the Gospels this James has almost nothing to do with Jesus' mission only given a brief mention as one of the brothers of Jesus, who allegedly opposed Jesus during his lifetime and regarded him as a nutcase. But Acts (supposed to be a historical narrative written by Luke) tells us after Jesus' death James, a brother who had been hostile to Jesus in his lifetime, suddenly became the revered leader of His Church. Like so much else, this isn't explained. Let us remember that according to scholars all the gospels were written after Paul's writings, there are no originals.


You make the illogical conclusion that James' lack of belief prior to Jesus' death is equivalent to hostility. Even if it were, which is nowhere to be found to be the case, hostility can be overcome by the extraordinary. With respect to the Bible, all of the apostles except John ran away after Christ was crucified. After that however, pretty much all of them became founders of a church in a different country (Peter-Ethiopia, Thaddaeus-Armenia, Thomas-India, etc). If you are to say that this was because they weren't hostile to Jesus before, then you have to explain why it's impossible for a change of heart the kind Paul had for James to have had.

Quote:

In fact James is a subject, some Protestants in particular, wish would just go away. The most likely explanation is that the near erasure of Jesus' brother James (and his other brothers) from any significant role in the gospel story is part of the downplaying of the early leaders who had been in close contact with Jesus whom regarded with great suspicion and dismay the Christological theories of Paul. Paul flaunted his brand new visions in interpretation of the Jesus whom he had never met in the flesh. The church fathers wanted the Jesus of Paul, a neoplatonic savior-god that offered salvation at no effort other than faith and through the church. They didn't want the Jesus of James, a Jew that wouldn't let them escape the Law, which held one directly responsible for their actions. James and the other apostles were in fact bitter enemies of Paul.


What exactly were James and the rest of Jesus' brothers leaders of? Pharisees? Saducees? Their doctrines were well known and are even mentioned throughout the New Testament (Acts 23:8, etc). From Jesus' discourse on hypocrisy it's evident what the Pharisees did that wasn't in agreement with Jesus. Please provide your evidence for James being a "Jew that wouldn't let them escape the Law." Pretty much all of the apostles upheld the law, and evidence of this is recorded in Acts, as well as Paul's responses in Timothy.

Quote:

Jesus and his immediate followers were Pharisees who like the Zoroastrians (Persians) believed in the resurrection of the dead. (The Sadducees rejected this and were at odds with the Pharisees.) Jesus was a rabbi who probably had no intention of founding a new religion. He regarded himself as the Messiah in the normal Jewish sense of the term, i.e. a human leader who would restore the Jewish monarchy and inaugurate an era of peace, justice and prosperity (known as "the kingdom of God") for the whole world. Jesus believed himself to be the figure prophesied in the Hebrew Bible who would do all these things. He was not a militarist and did not build up an army to fight the Romans, since he believed that God would perform a great miracle to break the power of Rome. This miracle would take place on the Mount of Olives, as prophesied in the book of Zechariah. Note that Pharisee Judaism is the one that survives today.


The Pharisees were Jesus' immediate followers? There is historical evidence that they existed much earlier than Jesus, and furthermore Jesus' teachings are incompatible with their practices. Your assertion that Jesus didn't want to start a new religion is inconsistent with the Great Commission found in the end of Matthew, Luke and John. He certainly regarded Himself as the Messiah as per Isaiah's requirements, and is evident of His reference to Himself as the Lamb that He associated Himself with Daniel's sacrifice for the atonement of sin (Daniel 9:27). Where exactly does Zachariah prophecize that the Messiah's preaching on the Mount of Olives would bring about a miracle to destroy Rome's grip on Judaea? The Pharisees of Jesus' day are not to be confused with Hasidism, which arose in 18th century Europe.

Quote:

The first followers of Jesus, under James and Peter, founded the Jerusalem Church after Jesus' death. They were called the Nazarenes, and in all their beliefs they were indistinguishable from the Pharisees, except that they believed in the resurrection of Jesus, and that Jesus was still the promised Messiah. They believed Jesus had been brought back to life after his death on the cross, and would soon come back to complete his mission of overthrowing the Romans and setting up the Messianic kingdom. The Nazarenes did not believe that Jesus had abrogated the Jewish religion, or Torah. Having known Jesus personally, they were aware that he had observed the Jewish religious law all his life and had never rebelled against it. His Sabbath cures were not against Pharisee law. The Nazarenes were themselves very observant of Jewish religious law. They practiced circumcision, did not eat the forbidden foods and showed great respect to the Temple.


Once again, the New Testament is a serious discrepancy between the Pharisaic practices. The ideology may have been similar due to the common source - the Old Testament, but you cannot attempt to reconcile the two, especially with the historical problems the two had. On the contrary, they charged Jesus with breaking the Sabbath by picking seeds on Saturday. There certainly may have been Pharisaic converts to Christianity (Nicodemus, Acts 15:5), but to claim that the Pharisees were the Christians is ridiculous.

Quote:

The Nazarenes did not regard themselves as belonging to a new religion; their religion was Judaism. They set up synagogues of their own, but they also attended non-Nazarene synagogues on occasion, and performed the same kind of worship in their own synagogues as was practiced by all observant Jews. The Nazarenes became suspicious of Paul when they heard that he was preaching that Jesus was the founder of a new religion and that he had abrogated the Torah. After an attempt to reach an understanding with Paul, the Nazarenes (i.e. the Jerusalem Church under James and Peter) broke irrevocably with Paul and disowned him. Indeed, when Paul visited Jerusalem, Jews attacked and try to kill him. Paul is saved only by invoking his Roman citizenship, a citizenship that Jews fiercely hated in those days. Because Paul appeals to Rome, Paul is then taken to there where he undergoes a trial for his life.


You have no evidence for these assertions. Firstly, why would they set up their own synagogues if they considered themselves to be part of traditional Judaism? When and where do they become "suspicious" of Paul? Paul did not appeal to his citizenship in Jerusalem because he escaped and if he had been caught it was unlikely that any roman citizenship would have saved him there. He was released from prison due to his Roman citizenship in Philippi. The Christian Church never disowned Paul. They simply disagreed regarding the Mosaic Law.

Quote:

Paul, not Jesus, was the founder of Christianity as a new religion which developed away from both normal Judaism and the Nazarene variety of Judaism. In this new religion, central myth was that of an atoning death of a Divine being. Belief in this sacrifice, and a mystical sharing of the death of the deity, formed the only path to salvation. Paul alone was the creator of this amalgam.


It would be nice if you had something to support this assertion other than empty theories regarding James and a mystical disconnection between Paul and the church.

Quote:

A source of information about Paul that has never been taken seriously enough is a group called the Ebionites. Their writings were suppressed by the Orthodox Church, but some of their views and traditions were preserved in the writings of their opponents, particularly in the huge "Treatise on Heresies" by Epiphanius. From this it appears that the Ebionites had a very different account to give of Paul's background and early life from that found in the New Testament and fostered by Paul himself. The Ebionites testified that Paul had no Pharisaic background or training; he was the son of Gentiles, converted to Judaism in Tarsus, came to Jerusalem when an adult, and attached himself to the High Priest as a henchman. Disappointed in his hopes of advancement, he broke with the High Priest and sought fame by founding a new religion. These accounts, while not reliable in all its details may be substantially correct. It makes far more sense of all the puzzling and contradictory features of the story of Paul than the account of the official documents of the Orthodox Church.


The Ebionites emerged as a Christian sect in the late 1st century (Ebionites). Their writings are about as valid and reliable as the Nag Hammadi by the 4th century Gnostics. We have 7, possibly 8 if you count Colossians, undisputed epistles by Paul from which you can gather that he never departed from the teaching to uphold the Law. He simply gave a description of how to do this and that it was not in the traditional sense.

Quote:

The Ebionites were stigmatized by the Orthodox Church as heretics who failed to understand that Jesus was a Divine person and asserted instead that he was a human being who came to inaugurate a new earthly age, as prophesied by the Jewish prophets of the Bible. Moreover, the Ebionites refused to accept the Orthodox Church doctrine derived from Paul, that Jesus abolished or abrogated the Jewish law. Instead, the Ebionites observed the law and regarded themselves as Jews. The Ebionites were not heretics, as the Church asserted, nor "re-Judaizers," as modern scholars call them, but the authentic successors of the immediate disciples and followers of Jesus, whose views and doctrines they faithfully transmitted, believing correctly that they were derived from Jesus himself. They were the same group that had earlier been called the Nazarenes, who were led by James and Peter, who had known Jesus during his lifetime, and were in a far better position to know his aims than Paul, who met Jesus only in dreams and visions. Thus the opinion held by the Ebionites about Paul is of extraordinary interest and deserves respectful consideration, instead of dismissal as 'scurrilous' propaganda -- the reaction of Christian scholars from ancient to modern times.


The church never pertained that Jesus abolished the law. The Ebionites' heresy was that they maintained that salvation was obtained through faith as well as works, contrary to what Jesus himself said, and the gospels (John 3:16). You have no evidence regarding 1)any "Nazarene" group and 2) their connection to the Ebionites or the early church for that matter.

Quote:

The Ebionites and the existence of the Jewish Church itself still haunt the churches of Paul (Protestant, Catholic, and Orthodox) to this day. The Ebionites and others were declared heretics only on the basis of the "say-so" of the church and its self-chosen counsels. God decides, not the churches.
http://www.sullivan-county.com/news/paul/je.htm

Even though it's on an atheist site, it's still interesting reading
Hyam Maccoby (1924-2004) was a British scholar, dramatist, and Orthodox Jew specializing in the study of the Jewish and Christian religious tradition. In retirement he moved to Leeds, where he held an academic position at the Centre for Jewish Studies, University of Leeds. Maccoby was widely known for his theories of the historical Jesus and the historical origins of Christianity
The Problem of Paul
excerpt from: The Mythmaker: Paul and the Invention of Christianity
by Hyam Maccoby
http://www.positiveatheism.org/hist/maccoby2.htm


Various muslims have thrown this one in my face. Most notably, the alleged problem seems to be that Paul has written about half of the New Testament. It is, however, interesting to ask why anybody else should have written as much as he has when he had visited many more places than the rest of the apostles.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 01:09 am
Extropy wrote:
The thing about Christians is their tendency to to feel superior to others, and their tendency to hate others.

That, however, is not the reason that they are bothering. Tendencies are not rules, and as long as they are not rules, one cannot judge groups of people by generalizations.

The thing that is bothering about religious people in general is that they have an inability to change their beliefs. The ability to change one's own beliefs is very important, in that it allows improvement upon previous beliefs, and replacement with better beliefs. This is important because humans are falliable, and humans do err.

Religious people who believe that their own beliefs can be false, and that their beliefs need to be founded upon reason, on the other hand, are far less bothering.


I can personally testify that I don't feel superior as a Christian, nor did I become one to do so (which would show how much of a life I had). Personally, in these days, to be an atheist sort of forces the audience to consider him/her as more objective, as opposed to the Christian who would be viewed as a religious nut. I've changed my beliefs regarding many things: from Arianism to Trinitarianism, most recently I found out that the recalendarization of Daniel's 70 weeks, which is 99% prevalent to Christian apologetics is false. Instead of 32/33 AD as the death of Jesus, it would place it at 38/39 if left as is without further investigation. Since Pilate's governorship over Judea ended in 36 this would disqualify Jesus as the Messiah, though various calendaristic issues may be used to replace the traditional interpretation. I've seen a good alternative at the biblestudies.com site, but its conclusions run into a random gap period of about 130 years and a random date of 4XX BC from which the 62 'weeks' start most likely fixed to match 32/33 AD. My personal opinion is a less moderate version of the recalendarization that brings a date of 34/35 AD

maporsche wrote:

This doesn't say that all marriage is between 1 man and 1 woman. It says that THIS marriage was between 1 man and 1 woman.

It also seems to be mildly insulting to women, like they are a gift or something to be given away.

I've had the misfortune to go to a church where the preacher taught his flock of sheep that to this day men had one less rib then women, and he used this verse as his 'proof'. The group was pretty small (maybe 30-50 people), but at the end of the propaganda I challenged the LIAR on his words.....he told me that Satan was in my heart and that he would pray for me. I wasn't able to change his mind, even after getting a few people to count their ribs (by feeling them), both men and women did it and of course came to the same number, but as we know, facts cannot change the bible.


No, it's genetically true that men have one rib less than women. However, this would not be directly due to Adam since physical scars are not passed down genetically. Nevertheless, symbolism throughout the Bible is expressed through physical manifestations.

spendius wrote:


I can't understand all this fuss about fathers though. There's nothing to it. Our contribution isn't much of a sacrifice when you think about it. If I was the one getting pregnant when the "they shall become one flesh" got going I'm not sure it would ever get going. Motherhood seems a bit dire when you look at Mary at the foot of the cross.

Obviously, with birth control in operation there's no "one flesh" so it doesn't really matter who with aside from the property rights associated with the meaningless rock going around a meaningless and dying sun of the atheists.

It is no good being right when most people would prefer you to be wrong.

That might give you an idea why birth control is an important issue and proscribed by The Church.


The "one flesh" phrase does not describe the children of a marriage, though you could take that as a symbolism, but it is an allusion to God making Eve from Adam's rib. Thus the act of getting married, not having a child, causes you to become one flesh.

maporsche wrote:
Run 4 fun wrote:
Wether it says the word "marriage" or not it was the first marriage (aka lifelong union) between the first human being. In this, God reveals his perfect plan and what is beyond this is a perversion of that plan. I'm not lying... Sad


Is divorce a perversion of God's plan?

Adam and Eve were also fertile, are unfertile marriages a perversion of God's plan?


Just curiuos how far your bible goes.


Divorce in itself isn't wrong, though marrying a different woman/man before your previous wife/husband is. The fact that Adam and Eve were able to have kids does not mean that God is anti-infertiles. Their becoming parents is recorded in a strictly historical sense (i.e. They had x and x as a son) and there is no symbolism anywhere. The main purpose of Genesis 2 is to establish the definition of a marriage: i.e. that you cannot marry an animal (Genesis 2:20), and that you marry a woman (Genesis 2:21-24).

Eorl wrote:
Everytime you say something along the lines of "The bible says a,b,c, therefore we can deduce x,y,z" you are effectively making stuff up (or you are passing along something someone else made up, perhaps a church?)
By what right do you, or anyone, interpret for others what the words of the bible actually mean?


Although this argument is used by the RC and Orthodox churches, your question can be taken to mean, "How do we correctly interpret the Bible?" Sometimes a straightforward read cannot do this due to the sociohistorical context in which the Bible was written. However, these not-so-rare situations are quickly discovered when something doesn't make sense (i.e. David "slaying" Goliath twice in the KJV translation of the battle [1 Samuel 17], whereas slaying meant both killing and cutting off a head [2 Samuel 21:12, KJV]). It would become apparent which interpretations stand up to scrutiny when they come to contradictory conclusions, so in the end you will be left with only a handful, most likely one or none, interpretations that are coherent and internally consistent. Until then, it's trial and error.

Diest TKO wrote:
So you can oofer no text? Nobody can directy answer my question?

Game. Set. Match.

I suppose God can Lust as well then because he is indifferent? Steal?

The fact is, that the Bible fails my test.


Your #1 is correct only when there's no cause; Matthew 5:22: "But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire."
0 Replies
 
Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 03:13 am
Quote:
Your #1 is correct only when there's no cause; Matthew 5:22: "But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire."


This speaks nothing of wrath. Even if it did, it doesn't get God off the hook for the double standard.
0 Replies
 
xingu
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 08:44 am
God of the Bible lives by double standards. He is a morally weak God who can't live up to the standards he expects us to live up to.

Is it wrong to kill children? That depends. If your God and enjoy bashing little children against rocks and killing them (Psalm 137) that's good. If humans do it, it's evil.

The circular argument goes like this. God is perfect. He can do no wrong. If God enjoys killing children there must be a reason for it. Since he can't do wrong his actions must be right and good. If we fail to see it than it's our fault.

Humans, on the other hand, are evil by nature. If they enjoy bashing children against rocks and killing them it's an act of evil. This would be especially true if, say, pagans were to kill Christian children because they were Christian. If God were to kill children because of their religious beliefs it must be good, an act that is beyond criticism. God may kill people because of their religious beliefs but if we do it, it's wrong.

Criticizing God is wrong. God doesn't like to be criticized or judged. But he may criticize and judge us.

God is selfish, vengeful and jealous. He is barbaric. He behaves like a selfish, vengeful, jealous and barbaric God. If we behave like that we are evil.

Let's not forget that we are God's play toys. He created us so he may do to us what he wish's and we have no right to complain or judge. We should just be grateful that He gave us life and we should spend it praising Him, telling Him how grateful we are for this opportunity to be alive and worship Him. If we make Him real happy, praise Him the way He demands, than He may allow us to live with Him in His city of gold.

Let us hope we praise Him correctly because if we don't, if we incur his wrath, we may very well be consumed in the "lake of fire" (Rev 20:15 and 21:8). As with all primitive societies we must fear God and God's wrath. We must appease him, make Him happy so things like 9/11, earthquakes and other natural disasters will strike others and not us.

We all know why Katrine devastated New Orleans.
0 Replies
 
mesquite
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 11:01 am
123rock wrote:
No, it's genetically true that men have one rib less than women. However, this would not be directly due to Adam since physical scars are not passed down genetically. Nevertheless, symbolism throughout the Bible is expressed through physical manifestations.


When you lay one obviously incorrect pile of poop such as that, what is one supposed to assume about the rest of your argument?

Quote:
Human rib cage
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

The human rib cage is a part of the human skeleton within the thoracic area. A typical human ribcage consists of 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the thoracic cavity, in both males and females. This was noted by the Flemish anatomist Vesalius in 1543, setting off a wave of controversy, as it was traditionally assumed from the Biblical story of Adam and Eve that men's ribs would number one fewer than women's. (De humani corporis fabrica [1]) A small proportion of people have one pair more or fewer but this is unrelated to gender.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_rib_cage
0 Replies
 
Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 12:45 pm
I counted my ribs today, and I am missing one! I need to start labeling things in the fridge to keep the roomates off.
0 Replies
 
maporsche
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 12:49 pm
mesquite wrote:
123rock wrote:
No, it's genetically true that men have one rib less than women. However, this would not be directly due to Adam since physical scars are not passed down genetically. Nevertheless, symbolism throughout the Bible is expressed through physical manifestations.


When you lay one obviously incorrect pile of poop such as that, what is one supposed to assume about the rest of your argument?

Quote:
Human rib cage
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

The human rib cage is a part of the human skeleton within the thoracic area. A typical human ribcage consists of 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the thoracic cavity, in both males and females. This was noted by the Flemish anatomist Vesalius in 1543, setting off a wave of controversy, as it was traditionally assumed from the Biblical story of Adam and Eve that men's ribs would number one fewer than women's. (De humani corporis fabrica [1]) A small proportion of people have one pair more or fewer but this is unrelated to gender.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_rib_cage




I told you these crazy morons exist.

I'd bet 3:1 that this guy was home-schooled.
0 Replies
 
Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 01:08 pm
I hope so. I went to public school, and if this guy came out of the system, then I'm sad.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 01:19 pm
Diest TKO wrote:
Quote:
Your #1 is correct only when there's no cause; Matthew 5:22: "But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire."


This speaks nothing of wrath. Even if it did, it doesn't get God off the hook for the double standard.


I'm sorry but if you can't understand that anger and wrath are synonyms then you should get a thesaurus.

mesquite wrote:
123rock wrote:
No, it's genetically true that men have one rib less than women. However, this would not be directly due to Adam since physical scars are not passed down genetically. Nevertheless, symbolism throughout the Bible is expressed through physical manifestations.


When you lay one obviously incorrect pile of poop such as that, what is one supposed to assume about the rest of your argument?



Sorry about that. I remember presenting something about the human rib cage in physiology and I remember commenting about 23 ribs in men. I think I must have said that it was a myth, so I must have gotten confused.

maporsche wrote:
mesquite wrote:
123rock wrote:
No, it's genetically true that men have one rib less than women. However, this would not be directly due to Adam since physical scars are not passed down genetically. Nevertheless, symbolism throughout the Bible is expressed through physical manifestations.


When you lay one obviously incorrect pile of poop such as that, what is one supposed to assume about the rest of your argument?

Quote:
Human rib cage
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

The human rib cage is a part of the human skeleton within the thoracic area. A typical human ribcage consists of 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the thoracic cavity, in both males and females. This was noted by the Flemish anatomist Vesalius in 1543, setting off a wave of controversy, as it was traditionally assumed from the Biblical story of Adam and Eve that men's ribs would number one fewer than women's. (De humani corporis fabrica [1]) A small proportion of people have one pair more or fewer but this is unrelated to gender.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_rib_cage




I told you these crazy morons exist.

I'd bet 3:1 that this guy was home-schooled.


No, but I'd bet 100:1 that you weren't schooled at all.
0 Replies
 
Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 01:27 pm
Quote:
I'm sorry but if you can't understand that anger and wrath are synonyms then you should get a thesaurus.

Oh really?

Theosaurus.com entry for anger.

0/3, what don't I understand?

Theosaurus.com entry for wrath

0/1, what don't I understand?

You should think before you post. Post only things you know about. You're oviosly out of your element. How embarrassing for you.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 01:28 pm
xingu wrote:
God of the Bible lives by double standards. He is a morally weak God who can't live up to the standards he expects us to live up to.

Is it wrong to kill children? That depends. If your God and enjoy bashing little children against rocks and killing them (Psalm 137) that's good. If humans do it, it's evil.

The circular argument goes like this. God is perfect. He can do no wrong. If God enjoys killing children there must be a reason for it. Since he can't do wrong his actions must be right and good. If we fail to see it than it's our fault.

Humans, on the other hand, are evil by nature. If they enjoy bashing children against rocks and killing them it's an act of evil. This would be especially true if, say, pagans were to kill Christian children because they were Christian. If God were to kill children because of their religious beliefs it must be good, an act that is beyond criticism. God may kill people because of their religious beliefs but if we do it, it's wrong.

Criticizing God is wrong. God doesn't like to be criticized or judged. But he may criticize and judge us.

God is selfish, vengeful and jealous. He is barbaric. He behaves like a selfish, vengeful, jealous and barbaric God. If we behave like that we are evil.

Let's not forget that we are God's play toys. He created us so he may do to us what he wish's and we have no right to complain or judge. We should just be grateful that He gave us life and we should spend it praising Him, telling Him how grateful we are for this opportunity to be alive and worship Him. If we make Him real happy, praise Him the way He demands, than He may allow us to live with Him in His city of gold.

Let us hope we praise Him correctly because if we don't, if we incur his wrath, we may very well be consumed in the "lake of fire" (Rev 20:15 and 21:8). As with all primitive societies we must fear God and God's wrath. We must appease him, make Him happy so things like 9/11, earthquakes and other natural disasters will strike others and not us.

We all know why Katrine devastated New Orleans.


The argument in defense of the Old Testament violence by God can be put in terms that you can understand such as killing Hitler versus not killing him. The seven nations around Israel were constantly harassing them, so in order to prevent as much death as possible they were completely wiped out. God's personal killings involve abusive husbands, etc. In Job, God does attack the most righteous man in the world, but that was all to reprove him of his sin of pride. It's very likely, however, that Job is nothing more than a parable instead of an actual event. The behemoth in Job 3x is said to live in the reeds. This is very close to a hippo, which does have the strong legs and jaws that Job describes. This would attest to Mosaic authorship, to whom the Talmud also ascribes Job, since there are obviously reeds in Egypt, but there aren't anywhere in Palestine, the area in which Uz is located. It may be used to suggest, if not that the historical Moses existed, but that there was Jewish literature since at least the 1400's BC.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 01:34 pm
No, that's just evidence of the persistence of an oral tradition, it proves absolutely nothing about when anything was written down, nor how accurate the recollection was at the time it was written down.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 01:58 pm
It could be oral tradition. The fact that a characteristic common only in Egypt with which the Jews had contact with socially does not mean that it had to be written exactly then. However, if you consider the time-scale of oral tradition, it couldn't exceed more than a few hundred years. I'm not denying that oral tradition exists. This is evidenced by various Church Fathers who lived well after the gospels had been written yet knew about certain traditions such as Mark being written by Peter who dictated it to Mark.

Although from the above we can say that a post-1000 BC date for Job would be unlikely, or in the least until when Assyria conquered Israel and Judah in 722 BC, the Jewish diaspora as the result of the Babylonian exile brought Jews to places near, if not in, Egypt, most notably the Elephantine island. Judging from the fact that the book says Job lived in Uz, yet mentions reeds which are nowhere to be found in that area, means the author wrote this either in Egypt, or in an area that had strong ties to it (i.e. Elephantine).
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 02:08 pm
Oral traditions can and routinely do survive for more than a few hundred years. The fact of the matter is, so far as historical records are available, the great majority of the Hebrews were illiterate until after the Babylonian captivity. A great deal of the stories (and they are no more than stories) found in Genesis were borrowed from other Semitic cultures and the Aryan Persians and Medes whom the Jews encountered during the Babylonian captivity. After the captivity, in the 6th century BCE, the existing "Bible" was revised and re-written, and the old and obscure Israelite script was replaced by a new Hebraic script. The Israelite script was later revived, but did not survive--even the Hebraic script became obsolete, because Aramaic became the lingua franca of the middle east, and all Jews spoke Aramaic and if they were literate, wrote in that language. If your boy Jesus even existed, he would have spoken Aramaic. The Aramaic merchants themselves largely became confessional Jews, and spread that religion around on their trade routes, reaching as far as China.

Quote:
. . . the Jewish diaspora as the result of the Babylonian exile brought Jews to places near, if not in, Egypt, most notably the Elephantine island.


This is one of the most absurd bits of bullshit you've yet attempted to peddle. Do you even know where Babylon was? Babylon is just south of the location of modern day Baghdad, and is in exactly the opposite direction from Egypt. A man on horseback could have reached Egypt from Judea in a few days, if he had enough water and wasn't attacked--by traveling west. From Judea to Babylon was more than twice as far, traveling east. There are reeds in the valley of the Tigris and Euphrates Rivers, you know. You shouldn't come here and just make **** up.
0 Replies
 
123rock
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 02:15 pm
Setanta wrote:
Oral traditions can and routinely do survive for more than a few hundred years. The fact of the matter is, so far as historical records are available, the great majority of the Hebrews were illiterate until after the Babylonian captivity. A great deal of the stories (and they are no more than stories) found in Genesis were borrowed from other Semitic cultures and the Aryan Persians and Medes whom the Jews encountered during the Babylonian captivity. After the captivity, in the 6th century BCE, the existing "Bible" was revised and re-written, and the old and obscure Israelite script was replaced by a new Hebraic script. The Israelite script was later revived, but did not survive--even the Hebraic script became obsolete, because Aramaic became the lingua franca of the middle east, and all Jews spoke Aramaic and if they were literate, wrote in that language. If your boy Jesus even existed, he would have spoken Aramaic. The Aramaic merchants themselves largely became confessional Jews, and spread that religion around on their trade routes, reaching as far as China.


The great majority of any population have been illiterate. Even in the first centuries CE 90-95% of the population was illiterate, and could not write. Indeed, there are similarities between the Genesis account and the creation stories of neighboring countries, most notably the Enuma Elish and such. However, it is a judgment call to say that Genesis derived its stories from these, since similarities could be due to a common source: oral tradition, and a Flood account is found in areas of the world that the Jews couldn't have had contact with at all. Galilee in Jesus' day was bilingual so if indeed Jesus existed, there would have been Aramaic as well as some Greek at least, and possibly Hebrew as well.

Quote:
After the captivity, in the 6th century BCE, the existing "Bible" was revised and re-written, and the old and obscure Israelite script was replaced by a new Hebraic script.


Could you site your sources for that?

Quote:

This is one of the most absurd bits of bullshit you've yet attempted to peddle. Do you even know where Babylon was? Babylon is just south of the location of modern day Baghdad, and is in exactly the opposite direction from Egypt. A man on horseback could have reached Egypt from Judea in a few days, if he had enough water and wasn't attacked--by traveling west. From Judea to Babylon was more than twice as far, traveling east. There are reeds in the valley of the Tigris and Euphrates Rivers, you know. You shouldn't come here and just make **** up.


Whether there are reeds near Euphrates or Tigris is irrelevant. The last hippos in ancient Israel disappeared before 1000 BC (see http://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0003-097X(195312)132%3C30%3AOTOOHI%3E2.0.CO%3B2-B) I'm not talking about the first Babylonian empire. I'm talking about the neo-Babylonian one. And for the record, with your extensive knowledge of the Bible, it would be a long time before you or anybody else here knew that I was making anything up.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 02:23 pm
Babylon wasn't moved because the Persians and Medes successfully invaded and took over. Babylon was still located a lot farther east of Judea than Egypt was west of Judea.

You missed a small detail about Palestine in the first century--Latin would have been a common language as well--you seem to have forgotten the Romans. Your remarks about literacy are unwarranted, and of course, you provide no source. The Aramaic merchants were not only likely to have been nearly completely literate, they used primitive credit instruments, such as letters of credit, and required invoices and bills of lading. Anyone dealing with them, and they were largely the only game in town there on the edge of the Roman empire, would have had to have been literate to have done business with them. Many Jews may have been illiterate, but there is absolutely no good reason to go with your 90-95% figure. More than that, if you are going to refer to the Greeks, who only settled among those whom they considered barbarians for commercial reasons, you are once again referring to a highly-literate population.

Basically, the Jews were the hillbillies of the middle east, and it is in fact hilarious to compare their versions of history, and the grandeur of their culture with the historical evidence available about the degree of sophistication, literacy and the construction of monumental architecture among the Akkadian Semites and the Persian and Medean Aryans. The "Great" Temple was a shack compared to what was being done elsewhere in the middle east, and the Jews were an unimportant and insignificant people in the region in ancient times.
0 Replies
 
Diest TKO
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Mar, 2007 02:28 pm
Update: Being that nobody can post any scripture to suport why God has a double standard with sin, I'm closing this question.

Question: Why can god have wrath, be infoulable, and wrath be a sin?
Answer: God sins; is foulable. Measured by its own standards, God holds humans to a higher standard than itself.

Thanks for clearing that up!
0 Replies
 
 

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