Re: constitution
Debra_Law wrote:First, how would the issue of overruling Roe v. Wade ever make its way to the Supreme Court for reconsideration? There has to be a justiciable case or controversy brought by someone with standing -- someone who is suffering a concrete injury in fact.
It happens. I specifically remember
Planned Parenthood vs. Casey, and there may well have been other cases that would have allowed the court to revisit
Roe. I see no reason why a similar case shouldn't make its way to the Supreme Court again.
Debra_Law wrote:Second, what part of Roe v. Wade would the Supreme Court be "correct" to overrule as a matter of constitutional law? Would it be the "right to privacy" protected by the constitution?
Yes, because the constitution, literally interpreted, does not protect a right to privacy. More specifically, it isn't clear that the Supreme Court, in
Roe vs. Wade, was correct in stating that laws against abortion violate the Fourth Amendment: "The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized." You can construct a 'right to abort an embryo' with a long interpretational stretch that starts with the Fourth Amendment. But reasonable jurists can believe that this stretch is too long to constitute a valid interpretation -- and many of them do.
Debrah_Law wrote: In constitutional cases, stare decisis carries such persuasive force that the Court has always required a departure from precedent to be supported by some special justification.
As an example to the contrary, let me offer
United States vs. Butler (1936) and
Wickard vs. Filburn (1942). In
Butler, the Supreme Court ruled part of Roosevelt's Agricultural Adjustment Act unconstitutional, on the grounds that growing corn to feed it to your hogs doesn't constitute interstate commerce, so the federal government can't regulate it under the Commerce Clause. In
Wickard, only six years later, the Supreme Court held the corresponding part of Roosevelt's (updated) Agricultural Adjustment Act constitutional on the grounds that growing wheat to feed it to your chicken
does constitute interstate commerce, so
can be regulated by the federal government under the Commerce Clause. If the Supreme Court gave a special justification for this change of mind, I can't find it in its ruling on
Wickard vs. Filburn. So much for the "persuasive force" of
stare decisis.