47
   

Two weeks into Occupy Wall Street protests, movement is at a crossroads

 
 
georgeob1
 
  1  
Reply Sun 16 Oct, 2011 03:59 pm
I do enjoy these tortured rationalizations attempting to show that Fannie & Freddie; the CRA and mortgage quotas issued by HUD didn't contribute anything to the housing bubble or the growing concentration of non conforming and subprime mortgages among mortgage backed securities.

I'ts a tough job to prove something so contrary to both common sense and the public record. However true fanatics are often undaunted by facts.
parados
 
  1  
Reply Sun 16 Oct, 2011 04:33 pm
@georgeob1,
georgeob1 wrote:

I do enjoy these tortured rationalizations attempting to show that Fannie & Freddie; the CRA and mortgage quotas issued by HUD didn't contribute anything to the housing bubble or the growing concentration of non conforming and subprime mortgages among mortgage backed securities.


You seem to amuse yourself with your own fantasies.

No one here argued they didn't contribute. They were not the main cause however.
georgeob1
 
  1  
Reply Sun 16 Oct, 2011 06:18 pm
@parados,
You are wrong on both counts.
parados
 
  1  
Reply Sun 16 Oct, 2011 08:37 pm
@georgeob1,
I see. You are just projecting your fanaticism undaunted by facts unto others.
0 Replies
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  -1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 09:46 am
@georgeob1,
georgeob1 wrote:

You are wrong on both counts.


Pretty rich coming from you. Why should anyone believe anything you say, seeing as you are willing to assert complete falsehoods, and don't bother responding when that fact is revealed?

I think Parados is dead on; you're so invested in the bullshit narrative, you can't let little things like details screw it up.

Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  0  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 09:51 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:

Robert Gentel wrote:
Just point one of them out then that you feel is unsupported and we'll go from there.

Well, let's start with the first one:

Earlier, Robert Gentel wrote:
70% of the sub-prime mortgages were held by companies that the government required to have increasing quotas of loans going to sub-average income homes.

Adequate support for this would be a time series, from a competent and independent source, running over the last decade, showing which institutions owned how much equity in sub-prime mortages and when. My current belief is that such a graph would show Fannie and Freddie holding a lot of them in the end, but that they weren't significant players in that market while the housing bubble inflated. But I'm willing to change my belief on the basis of your time series.


Thank you, Thomas; I believe, based on what the Dallas Fed said, that this isn't true at all. I would also question the time period involved here; certainly this wasn't the case prior to 2004, when the vast majority of these mortgages were being handed out by groups like Countrywide, who had no such requirements.

Cycloptichorn
Cycloptichorn
 
  0  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 10:01 am
@Finn dAbuzz,
Finn dAbuzz wrote:

Cycloptichorn wrote:


There's a large difference here, in that banks and investment houses have a wide variety of options available for making money. They were not forced to take ever-increasing risks in order to continue their business. For many who attend college, however, there is no other option than to take loans out.


Not as large as you would have it.

You're right, the firms that responded to governmental pressure and incentives to try and find a way to make money on bad risks and survive the downside, did not have to do so.


Uh, full stop. This account is heavily flawed to begin with, as there was zero government pressure for any of the firms (not banks - investment houses) to have anything to do with mortgages at all. They chose to invest in them as commodities - they have no underlying mission to promote housing or affordable housing at all. They simply chose to do so, because they thought they cold make massive profits off of it. And for a while, they did.

So, your 'the gov't gave them no choice!' narrative is simply untrue.
Quote:

I think BOTH groups should be held responsible for their decisions, regardless of the motivations or logic that lead to their earlier decisions. The girl who took out loans should pay them back, and the bankers investors who took giant risks in the name of profits should be held responsible for the destruction that has been brought about by their doing so - something which certainly hasn't happened.

We very much agree in principle but I think we might not agree on what "held responsible" precisely means.


Sure; I think that the banks and investment houses in 2008 should have all been nationalized, their entire senior management fired, and their bond and shareholders wiped out. Because that's what happens when you can't come up with money you owe - in a normal world.
Quote:


To re-focus on the overall point of the thread,

The protestors should begin to winnow their concerns down to something very easy to understand and repeat: Privatized profits and Socialized losses cannot continue to exist. It benefits society in no way for such a situation to exist - only a tiny segment of people benefit from this. In order to keep this from happening in the future, the structure of the banking and investment system in our country must be changed, so that businesses who fail, fail - without destroying our markets and country in the process.

The devil is always in the detail, but again we very much agree in principle


As long as your details are designed to actually bring about the desired effect, I'm in total agreement.

Quote:
As for the personal, anti-wealthy attitude that many of them seem caught up on, those concerns should be narrowed as well; removal of the foolish rules which allow the wealthiest to pay almost nothing in taxes whatsoever. This would affect only a handful of people, but restore a sense of fairness to an essentially screwed tax system.

To the extent that there are a handful of extremely wealthy people paying almost nothing in taxes, we again agree, but I suspect that there is a whole lot of room for disagreement within this subject.


I'm referring to the carried interest rule -

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carried_interest

- that allows rich fund managers to effectively pay nothing on their gigantic profits.

Quote:
I don't know what it says or means, but it's interesting that we can at least appear to be in such close agreement on these matters. Of course, sooner or later, my delusion of divine right or your egg


Well, this is one of the major reasons I feel the Occupy Wall Street protests can have some success - the problems they are seeking to address are real and the solutions are reasonable. It's not just a bunch of crazy lefties who see something needs to be done about these issues.

Cycloptichorn
georgeob1
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 11:10 am
@Cycloptichorn,
The carried interest rule is arguable, and based on what I know, I don't see any public benefit in treating the short term trading activities of Hedge funds as long term capital gains.

However it is inaccurate to imply they pay no taxes ("almost nothing") on these profits. With Federal capital gains taxes and New York state and municipal income taxes, plus other excise taxes on financial institutions levied by the city, government takes over 25% of the profits involved.
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 11:25 am
@georgeob1,
georgeob1 wrote:

The carried interest rule is arguable, and based on what I know, I don't see any public benefit in treating the short term trading activities of Hedge funds as long term capital gains.

However it is inaccurate to imply they pay no taxes ("almost nothing") on these profits. With Federal capital gains taxes and New York state and municipal income taxes, plus other excise taxes on financial institutions levied by the city, government takes over 25% of the profits involved.


25% is almost nothing. Everyone else pays combined rates closer to 50%. The work they are doing should be taxed at the 35% rate to begin with, as it's ordinary income - there's nothing but the most bullshit and tortured reasoning that would define that money as 'cap gains.'

Additionally: what a ******* joke that there's still no response from you as to how wrong you were about 'the public record' regarding federal requirements for mortgage lenders. No admission that you were wrong, no apology, nothing. You just try and ignore it and hope nobody notices - like usual.

I don't need any more discussion from you on the subject - frankly, you aren't informed enough for me to consider your opinion valid - just an admission.

Cycloptichorn
Robert Gentel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:20 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
Earlier, Robert Gentel wrote:
70% of the sub-prime mortgages were held by companies that the government required to have increasing quotas of loans going to sub-average income homes.

Adequate support for this would be a time series, from a competent and independent source, running over the last decade, showing which institutions owned how much equity in sub-prime mortages and when. My current belief is that such a graph would show Fannie and Freddie holding a lot of them in the end, but that they weren't significant players in that market while the housing bubble inflated. But I'm willing to change my belief on the basis of your time series.


Ok, I'll humor you. But I do want to say for the record that you frequently cite Krugman opinion pieces yourself. And if this is the level of scholarship that you demand I live up to in this forum (to avoid sinking to the level of a "creationist" that is "churning" out unsupported allegations in an affront to those who "give a **** about evidence") it strikes me as being enforced with a great deal of selectivity. Namely in that I don't think you live up to these standards yourself.

You are also moving the goalposts by demanding a "time series." I made no claim that this was the case up to a decade ago and deciding that I now must do so it to modify my claim. What I will do, is provide substantiation for the claim I actually did make.

As you know, from the WSJ article you dismissed, that specific claim came from studies by Edward Pinto, formerly the chief credit officer for Fannie Mae. I didn't want there to be any chance that I might misrepresent which of the papers I was able to find was the true source for that claim so I emailed Mr. Pinto yesterday to ask him to point me to the particular bit of scholarship that this claim referenced and he pointed me here:

Three Studies of Subprime and Alt-A Loans in the US Mortgage Market

That is the supporting evidence for that particular claim, with its particular definition and scope. It is not the time line you demand, but the scholarship behind the actual claim, which referenced June of 2008.

I happen to know why you are making the time line demand, and would like you to go ahead and make that argument.
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:33 pm
@Robert Gentel,
Quote:


I happen to know why you are making the time line demand, and would like you to go ahead and make that argument.


I sure hope the answer here is: 'Fannie and Freddie were panicking as they lost market share to firms who DID make terrible loan decisions.

Cycloptichorn
Robert Gentel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:42 pm
@parados,
parados wrote:
Let's start with some issues here Robert. Your article from the WSJ was written by 2 members of the American Enterprise Institute. While that doesn't make them wrong, it does make their statements suspect.


I don't think that casting aspersions on the basis of the messenger is in any way a legitimate way of denouncing the message. The same trick is not legitimate regardless of political leanings.

It's wrong when conservatives reject it out of hand because it comes from the Daily Kos and it's wrong for liberals to reject it out of hand because it comes from a conservative ideologue.

I am not arguing the conclusions that they draw (which, in effect, is that we have no under-regulation problem, and that over-regulation is what caused it all in the first place, in essence: liberals did it!) because I do not share them. But even if you take the data that the liberal ideologues came up with to "debunk" this conservative attempt to politicize the data, it still shows a huge amount of these sub-prime loans did, in fact, have a GSE holding the bag.

Quote:
Yes, the goal of Fannie and Freddie was to purchase 50% of mortgages to at or below median income levels.


As I understand it their goal was for 55% of their own MBS to come from below median income levels, not that they sought to purchase that percentage of the market. I think that is what you may mean by this statement.

Quote:
But we can't assume that everyone below median income is poor or does not have good credit. First of all, it doesn't require that 50% of mortgages written by banks be of that level. Nor does it require that people with bad credit or no income be given mortgages. It only sets a level of 50% of mortgages Fannie and Freddie buy be below the median income.
It isn't unreasonable to assume that 40-50% of all mortgages written would be for persons below median income based simply on the meaning of median.


I'm not sure what your point is. Mine was simple. Long ago, the government promoted the idea of MBS to spread out the risk of these mortgages as a way to make them more affordable to those with lower incomes. There was increasing pressure on the GSEs to do more and more*. The GSEs declared that they would buy 1 trillion of the MBS by 2011.

My argument is that this created a very large moral hazard. That a huge amount (even if you want to dispute the 70% figure the opposing side comes up with figures like 50%) of this market that the government essentially insured provided incentive to gamble very riskily.

Quote:
The most interesting thing about the realities of those loans Robert is they were NOT for people with bad credit.
A study by the St Louis Fed in 2006, prior to the implosion, found the majority of the loans were for people taking cash out when refinancing. The vast majority of those loans were considered A- in risk. Over 60% of sub prime loans were to people with credit scores above 600.
PDF of study
The FED makes this conclusion about the subprime market in 2006.
Quote:
Furthermore, the sub-
prime market had reduced its risk exposure by
limiting the loan amount of higher-risk loans and
imposing prepayment penalties on the majority
of ARMs and low credit-score loans.


I really don't know what it is about my claim that you think this addresses though. Could you make it more clear to me?

Quote:
If you want to point fingers after the fact, then you better look at who was saying what before then. Fannie and Freddie weren't the cause. Nor were they acting in a fashion that created the problems.


This is just vagueness over tone. If you want some liberal-friendly tone, to make this all more palatable to you, I will entertain you:

1) The private sector led this rush. Which make sense, the GSEs don't make the loans, they are buying them from them.

2) The GSEs were much more risk averse than the private sector on average.

3) The non-residential market suffered from many of the same excesses, regardless of not having the same incentives.

So yeah, I'm not trying to blame everything on anything in particular. I have no interest in these stupid politicized talking points (of arguing or debunking that one side is entirely at fault).

But there's no denying that these policies contributed in a meaningful way to the crisis. And it's worth pointing out because I think the policies should be revised. Using MBS purchases as government policy to make housing more affordable is not a good idea. I am not even convinced that the fundamental philosophy of the "Ownership Society" is a good idea in the first place, and even if it is MBS has a remarkable ability to obscure risk through distribution even while reducing it through distribution.

Quote:
Quote:
70% of the sub-prime mortgages were held by companies that the government required to have increasing quotas of loans going to sub-average income homes.
That statement is completely unsupported.While Fannie and Freddie had a less than median requirement of 50%, no one else did.


There were other regulations (not necessarily 50%) that affected non-GSEs. But this misses the point, by declaring that they were going to buy these MBS a moral hazard was created. Even if the others aren't required to loan this way this creates some incentive for them to. The GSEs declared that they would purchase up to a trillion dollars of these mortgages, they are guaranteeing a huge chunk of this market and this creates a large incentive.

Quote:
This was about companies trying to make as much money as possible. The majority of companies making sub prime loans had no quotas they had to meet.


These concepts are not mutually exclusive. If a company is only thinking about making money, and the government is guaranteeing home loans more and more aggressively it makes sense, to the company, to take advantage of the moral hazard.

My argument is not that companies are not trying to make money, but that we have created incentives for them to do so in ways that do not benefit the society as much as they benefit them.

Quote:
It appears banks specifically set up separate entities exempt from the community reinvestment act to make sub prime loans
http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2009/09/26/AR2009092602706.html


Can you draw the connection for me, to my argument?
Robert Gentel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:44 pm
@parados,
parados wrote:
I think I'll trust the Fed on this issue before I trust American Heritage and it's members.


Ok, but how does your quote even begin to dispute the claim?
0 Replies
 
georgeob1
 
  -1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:46 pm
@Cycloptichorn,
Your self-inflated indignation is misdirected. It is true the FRB Dallas article you cited argues effectively that the CRA did not alone cause either the bubble in housing prices or the wholsale default on subprime mortgages that followed the collapse of housing prices. However, I never argued that it did. Instead I argued that the wholesale securitization of Mortgages by Fannie Freddie and other banks atracted abnormal concentrations of capital to an overheated market, thereby creating the bubble, and created a new element of moral hazard for lenders (including Countrywide) who knew they need worry about default for only a few weeks until they sold the loans to Fannie or Freddy. I also asserted that the CRA and other quotas issued by HUD added to the out of control situation, thereby making it worse. All of this is true.

I made no assertions wehatever about the income levels, high or low, of people taking out sub prime mortgages, and don't consider the matter at all relevant to the point in question. You are merely creating yet another straw man to beat in support of the illusion you are saying something relervant to the point in dispute.

If I recall correctly you have asserted that the entire financial collapse was solely a consequence of the credit default swaps sold by AIG and other institutions. The truth is the CDS s were merely an illusory element of "insurance" with which the buyers of mortgage securities from Fannie and Freddy could assuage their fears. By supporting this illusion they certainly added to the problem just as did the CRA, but neither alone caused it.

The default crisis was caused by the collapse of a bubble in housing prices, which in turn was a result of the movement of excess capital to the mortgage market - a movement that was aided and abetted by Fannie Mae, Freddy Mac and other government guarantee programs. The collapsing bubble and the increase fraction of non conforming loans (reduced down payments) precipitated the wholesale mortgage defaults - an important driver for the financial crisis. Side effects of the CRA and the illusory insurance sold by AIG made it all worse. That is the truth.

I'm not very interested in your creative techniques for arguing a point, and I am weary of your bombast.
Robert Gentel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:46 pm
@Cycloptichorn,
Cycloptichorn wrote:
Thank you, Thomas; I believe, based on what the Dallas Fed said, that this isn't true at all. I would also question the time period involved here; certainly this wasn't the case prior to 2004, when the vast majority of these mortgages were being handed out by groups like Countrywide, who had no such requirements.


The GSEs did not lead the market in the bad lending, they were much more responsible than the private sector, this does not mean that they did not provide them an economic incentive to engage in more bad lending than they would have without the very large financial incentive (guaranteeing so much of it against risk to the companies making the loans).
0 Replies
 
Robert Gentel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:48 pm
@Cycloptichorn,
Cycloptichorn wrote:
I sure hope the answer here is: 'Fannie and Freddie were panicking as they lost market share to firms who DID make terrible loan decisions.


That's definitely a part of it. We could start there but I'm not going to put words in Thomas' mouth. I suspect I know why he is directing the argument that way but I want to let him do it himself.
0 Replies
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:50 pm
@Robert Gentel,
Quote:



Quote:

It appears banks specifically set up separate entities exempt from the community reinvestment act to make sub prime loans
http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2009/09/26/AR2009092602706.html


Can you draw the connection for me, to my argument?


Heck, I can: you can't blame the CRA or HUD policies for the mortgage crisis when the banks were avoiding those policies by using gimmicks, and using those gimmicks to give out tons of toxic mortgages.

As for moral hazard: I know a couple of guys who will buy anything off ya. Anything at all. NOT at a terrible price, either. They don't ask questions about where the goods come from. This provides me with a TREMENDOUS incentive to provide these guys with goods, as I could use the income stream for a lot of things I want. Is it fair to say that if I decide to take immoral or unethical actions in order to supply those goods, it's the fault of the Fences for giving me an incentive to do so?

This is the failure at the heart of every account that would blame the government: while the gov't policies were bad, it was affirmative and individual decisions on the part of all these companies to also make bad, unethical, and illegal practices their standard business. What more, they did so to the level where it overwhelmed pretty much ALL other business they were doing. Most of the banks and investment houses owed more in derivatives and MBS back in 2008 than the sum of all of their other assets combined. You can't blame that poor decision on the gov't.

Cycloptichorn
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:52 pm
@georgeob1,
George,

You simply stated that ALL lenders were required to follow the CRA and said it was a matter of the public record that this was true. You didn't know what you were talking about: it was not true. You ought to own up to your mistake and I dare you to do so.

However, it is the plain truth that the CRA had little to nothing to do with the mortgage crisis. But it's a familiar target for you Republicans, because it allows you to blame the gov't and poor folks, instead of the greed of your fellow travelers, for the crisis.

Quote:
If I recall correctly you have asserted that the entire financial collapse was solely a consequence of the credit default swaps sold by AIG and other institutions.


You don't recall correctly. This is a tremendous over-simplification of a complex issue which you don't understand well enough to discuss in depth, and my arguments on this subject over the years have apparently sailed right over your head.

Nothing else you wrote is remotely interesting.

Cycloptichorn

0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 01:55 pm
@Robert Gentel,
Robert Gentel wrote:
I don't think that casting aspersions on the basis of the messenger is in any way a legitimate way of denouncing the message. The same trick is not legitimate regardless of political leanings.

It's wrong when conservatives reject it out of hand because it comes from the Daily Kos and it's wrong for liberals to reject it out of hand because it comes from a conservative ideologue.

Parados and Cycloptichorn are correct in their conclusion even if they are incorrect in their reasoning. The correct reasoning is that opinion pieces, left or right, do not by themselves constitute a source facts. And that's okay, they're not supposed to. They're only supposed to dispense opinions. Stating facts---let alone citing credible evidence for them---is strictly optional. And if a text wasn't a source of facts to begin with, quoting it in an online forum doesn't make it one.

In the case of the editorial you cited, two economics professors attributed the blame for the financial crisis on Fannie and Freddie. They made several factual claims to support it, but cited no independent source for them. This is what made the editorial unfit to support your opinion.

That said, you're right about the partisanship side of it: Absent credibly-sourced facts, editorials from the Huffington Post are as worthless as editorials from the Wall-Street-Journal editorial page.
Robert Gentel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 17 Oct, 2011 02:00 pm
@Cycloptichorn,
Cycloptichorn wrote:
Heck, I can: you can't blame the CRA or HUD policies for the mortgage crisis when the banks were avoiding those policies by using gimmicks, and using those gimmicks to give out tons of toxic mortgages.


You are still missing the point. I insist that you refresh your memory on what a moral hazard is before continuing.

My argument is not that the private sector engaged in bad lending practices because they were covered by regulations that required them to, my argument is that they had some motivation to because the GSEs were guaranteeing so much of the market and that by doing so they created a moral hazard, where those that were doing the lending were shielded from some of the risk of their activity.

That they engaged in it, head-long, and without being required to, is not in question. That misses my point.

Quote:
As for moral hazard: I know a couple of guys who will buy anything off ya. Anything at all. NOT at a terrible price, either. They don't ask questions about where the goods come from. This provides me with a TREMENDOUS incentive to provide these guys with goods, as I could use the income stream for a lot of things I want. Is it fair to say that if I decide to take immoral or unethical actions in order to supply those goods, it's the fault of the Fences for giving me an incentive to do so?


I really think you should read it, it is not what it implies colloquially. It is an economic term. I had heard of it before and benefited from a recent refresher on it and there's no shame in needing to understand it better than you do right now.

Quote:
This is the failure at the heart of every account that would blame the government: while the gov't policies were bad, it was affirmative and individual decisions on the part of all these companies to also make bad, unethical, and illegal practices their standard business. What more, they did so to the level where it overwhelmed pretty much ALL other business they were doing. Most of the banks and investment houses owed more in derivatives and MBS back in 2008 than the sum of all of their other assets combined. You can't blame that poor decision on the gov't.


I am not trying to "blame the government" for it all. I just want to blame the government for a policy that I think contributed to it and that does not serve a useful purpose that counters its negative effects.
 

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