@mysteryman,
Quote:My problem with you statement is that if she gives consent while she has been drinking, then why should she be allow to later claim that alcohol influenced her decision?
You are assuming that she actually gave consent--that she was an active, freely willing participant, who not only didn't say, "No", but actually said, "Yes!"--that she was fully aware of what she was doing and wanted to be doing it.
So, why would you think this woman would even want to later claim she was raped, if she was fully aware of what she was doing at the time and presumably enjoyed herself?
And, why would you think that charges of rape of that type are happening with any degree of frequency? They're not.
Generally what happens is the woman has been drunk, she has really not consented verbally, but she may not have actively resisted, or resisted minimally--she was just essentially passive in the situation because she was drunk--and she will then report that she was raped while intoxicated. And that situation would actually be a rape. But most of the time, these rapes are never reported.
The only cases I have read about where the women's intoxicated state constituted legal non consent in an actual rape charge were instances where the woman was extremely drunk, or actually passed out or barely aware of what was happening. There was no consent. Very similar to that recent news story I posted about the 17 year old raped by 3 men when she was passed out at least some of the time. Or college women who passed out in a bedroom at a party and awakened to find a man penetrating them. And in the first case there is a video of the rape that shows the victim's condition, and in the second instances, there were witnesses who walked into the room and saw what was happening. So, the charges were not based on simply the woman's statement about being drunk. In other cases, people who have been at a party or bar with the woman testified to how much alcohol they had seen her drinking to attest to her intoxicated state prior to being with the rapist. So there was corroboration of the woman's drunken state.
It's not just that alcohol influences the woman's decision, it's that the alcohol actually prevented any decision (if she is passed out, or close to it), or the alcohol diminished her inhibitions and also diminished her cognitive functions to an extent where her judgment and ability to evaluate the situation was impaired because of the amount consumed.
There is no standard
I am applying--I didn't write the rape laws or the descriptions of "consent". These are the standards states apply, and they might differ from state to state. Most seem to be using the standard applied to DWI--.08 blood alcohol. The same standard you might use in deciding whether to give your wife, or girlfriend, or daughter, the keys to your car after she had been drinking. And most of the time the man has been with the woman while she was drinking prior to sex, so he has some idea of the amount she's consumed, and whether she might have used drugs in addition.
So, I don't think the situation you are describing even exists. If a woman reports a rape immediately, and goes to an ER, her med exam and rape kit would include measuring her blood alcohol level. If she doesn't have that exam done immediately, with blood work, she doesn't have any proof of even being intoxicated, unless there were witnesses who saw how much she had been drinking prior to being with the man. So she can't claim she was drunk, unless she can prove she was drunk. So simply claiming non consent, based only on an unsubstantiated claim of intoxication, isn't going to work, and it won't result in any man going to trial, let alone jail. I can't even imagine someone being charged with a date rape, do solely to the woman's intoxicated condition, without some objective evidence to substantiate her claim she was drunk.
You seem to have the quaint idea that many innocent men are being sentenced to prison for years and years , only on the word of a word of a woman who falsely claimed she was raped. Get real. Even BillRM has come up with exactly ONE case where that happened, and it was not even related to alcohol--and the only reason it became known that the woman lied about being raped, was because she voluntarily admitted it after he had been in prison for about 4 years. He was cleared, and she was sentenced to several years for perjury.
Most reported rapes--actual rapes--never go to trial. Most rapists are never convicted for what they have done. Where there is nothing more than he said/she said, and no other evidence (bruising, ripped clothing, vaginal injury, witnesses, etc.) to confirm that a rape occurred, the D.A. is unlikely to take the case to trial because he has nothing to use to convince a jury of guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.
The occasional flat out lies told by some women, claiming rape where no rape occurred, do not generally lead to convictions. It's hard enough to get convictions in actual rape cases, a woman who is flat out lying will more likely either be discovered by the police, because of inconsistencies in her story, or her motives to get back at the man, or she will be discredited on the witness stand by the man's defense attorney. Police and D.A.s and defense attorneys are not inept idiots, they deal with liars all the time, and they know how to spot them. If anything, the problem is the police don't believe the women who have actually been raped, so they are not so gullible that they'll unquestioningly believe a deliberate lie from a woman who has an ax to grind with a man, or who is using the man for some reason. And only when the woman admits she was lying do we know that her allegation was false. And almost all of the time, that happens before a case ever gets to trial.
So, let's keep things in perspective.
You are expected to know how much alcohol you can safely and legally consume before you get behind the wheel of your car. You are expected to know how much your wife or girlfriend can safely and legally consume before you can hand her the keys to drive you home from a party. So, it's not as though people are completely in the dark about what constitutes legal intoxication.
In date rape situations, the rape is difficult to prove, when actual rape has occurred--i.e. the woman said "No", offered some resistance, and the man penetrated her anyway. The woman who simply regrets doing something later, and then claims she was unable to give legal consent because she was drunk, is not likely to be believed by anyone--unless she can prove she was, in fact, drunk.
And, if she was impaired by alcohol, the man
might, only
might, be charged with rape.
The point of these laws, including the statutory rape laws, is to deter behavior under certain conditions--to prevent certain groups of individuals from being raped. And that includes individuals who are impaired by alcohol.
And these laws, pertaining to those who are impaired, have been on the books for years and I'm not sure that there is evidence to suggest they are being misused. Our jails are full enough, they are not looking to round up innocent men and toss them in a cell. Obviously, two people who are dating, and have a good relationship, and regularly have sex, are not going to have a problem if they have sex when they are drunk, or when just she is drunk, if he knows she doesn't mind it. The issue of rape, while under the influence, would generally occur only if that woman would not have had sex with that man if she had been sober. The kind of situation where the man would be taking advantage of her drunken state. And, in that sort of situation, the man should refrain from sex, if he really wants to protect himself from any possible legal entanglements.