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An electron is a posit?

 
 
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 09:17 am
@fast,
Wikipedia wrote:

The argument from illusion is an argument for the existence of sense-data. It is posed as a criticism of direct realism. Naturally occurring illusions best illustrate the argument's points, a notable example concerning a stick: I have a stick, which appears to me to be straight, but when I hold it underwater it seems to bend and distort. I know that the stick is straight and that its apparent flexibility is as a result of seeing it through the water, yet I cannot change the mental image I have of the stick as being bent. Since the stick is not in fact bent its appearance can be described as an illusion. Rather than directly perceiving the stick, which would entail our seeing it as it truly is, we must instead perceive it indirectly, via a sense-datum. This mental representation does not tell us anything about the stick's true properties, which remain inaccessible to us.

With this being the case, however, how can we be said to be certain of the stick's initial straightness? If all we perceive is sense-data then the stick's apparent initial straightness is just as likely to be false as its half-submerged bent appearance. Therefore, the argument runs, we can never gain any knowledge about the stick, as we only ever perceive a sense-datum, and not the stick itself.


First, this seems to make the mistake that the only way we can evaluate the stick's true properties is with sight. Though I see the stick bent in the water, I could, theoretically, find other ways to evaluate its shape.

Oddly enough, this explanation states, "Since the stick is not in fact bent its appearance can be described as an illusion". This seems to be a proclamation of a true property, doesn't it? But, the argument's conclusion is that we cannot know true properties. Not to mention, a true property of water is suggested right off the bat - a visual distortion property; it is assumed that water distorts how the stick looks.

Lastly, if everything we perceive is an illusion, what do we call what we normally call an illusion then?

Time-Lag Argument wrote:

When we see the sun, our perceptual state is the result of how the sun was eight minutes ago. The sun might not even exist now; yet we would still be seeing exactly what we are seeing. So what we are seeing cannot be identical with the sun.


I don't understand the argument, really. Suppose we can only see the sun how it was eight minutes ago. How does this change the fact that we saw the sun? Sure, it may not exist a minute later, but this doesn't mean I didn't directly observe the sun. The fact that the light from the sun traveled to my eyes at all is evidence enough that the sun existed, I think.

kennethamy wrote:

We do not experience electrons directly, in that we know they exist inferentially, through their "traces".


What do you make of this?

Wikipedia wrote:

Laboratory instruments are capable of containing and observing individual electrons


Bertrand Russell wrote:

Before we go farther it will be well to consider for a moment what it is that we have discovered so far. It has appeared that, if we take any common object of the sort that is supposed to be known by the senses, what the senses immediately tell us is not the truth about the object as it is apart from us, but only the truth about certain sense-data which, so far as we can see, depend upon the relations between us and the object. Thus what we directly see and feel is merely 'appearance', which we believe to be a sign of some 'reality' behind. But if the reality is not what appears, have we any means of knowing whether there is any reality at all? And if so, have we any means of finding out what it is like?


Russell begins by taking us through a few supposed basic properties of a table: color, texture, and shape. His point is that, depending on the observer, there is a different observed color, texture, and shape of the table. So, then, what is the 'real' color, texture and shape of the table?

But what has appearance to do with reality? He admits that most of us can agree upon the true properties of the table: that it's brown, shiny, has four legs, etc., but it is only after we try to observe in detail that we run into problems. I don't see how we do. Just because we are able to observe the table from different angles, it does not follow that there is no real shape of the table. And, nor does it mean that we can't know the real shape - we do, and Russell even admits that we do. We are not confused as to the shape of the table, as he leads us to believe.

I'm sure there's more to these arguments than what I've humored. So, please, anyone, show me the light. Show me the good argument for believing we do not directly observe things, and that we cannot know the true properties of things. As of yet, I am unconvinced.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 10:29 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;128476 wrote:

I'm sure there's more to these arguments than what I've humored. So, please, anyone, show me the light. Show me the good argument for believing we do not directly observe things, and that we cannot know the true properties of things. As of yet, I am unconvinced.



I did not maintain that these were sound arguments. On the contrary. But they are the kind of arguments that have been advanced for indirect or representative realism. They (or arguments like them) certainly persuaded philosophers like Descartes, Hume, Kant, A.J. Ayer, and many others that we cannot and do not observe the world directly, and, so, that there is an "external" world is an inference, and that there is an "external" world requires proof. G.E. Moore in the first line his famous essay, "Proof of an External World" cites Kant as writing that it is a scandal to philosophy that no one has ever proved the existence of an external world.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 10:44 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;128488 wrote:
I did not maintain that these were sound arguments. On the contrary. But they are the kind of arguments that have been advanced for indirect or representative realism. They (or arguments like them) certainly persuaded philosophers like Descartes, Hume, Kant, A.J. Ayer, and many others that we cannot and do not observe the world directly, and, so, that there is an "external" world is an inference, and that there is an "external" world requires proof. G.E. Moore in the first line his famous essay, "Proof of an External World" cites Kant as writing that it is a scandal to philosophy that no one has ever proved the existence of an external world.


If all these intelligent minds think, or thought, this, then I must be missing something.

Why would Moore say such a thing? As far as I am concerned, the proof is all around us. I wonder what sort of proof he was looking for.

It makes absolutely no sense to me how one can, in the same breathe, state that a dozen people agree about the color and shape of a table, admit those people are seeing the same table, and then deny that an external world exists. No matter if they are perceiving the table differently, doesn't it seem reasonable that there is a table, and that the table is real? I don't see the reason in believing otherwise. I don't see a good reason to doubt.
Scottydamion
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:03 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;128493 wrote:
If all these intelligent minds think, or thought, this, then I must be missing something.

Why would Moore say such a thing? As far as I am concerned, the proof is all around us. I wonder what sort of proof he was looking for.

It makes absolutely no sense to me how one can, in the same breathe, state that a dozen people agree about the color and shape of a table, admit those people are seeing the same table, and then deny that an external world exists. No matter if they are perceiving the table differently, doesn't it seem reasonable that there is a table, and that the table is real? I don't see the reason in believing otherwise. I don't see a good reason to doubt.


It's the room for doubt that's the problem. It isn't necessarily a denial that an external world exists, only an admittance of the possibility, and that possibility has been shown in many examples, the classics being Descartes's.

So the can of worms is that we could be misled about all of the intuitive ways that we try to justify things, and if that is the case then nothing is justified. So saying it isn't reasonable would be no longer justified.
Emil
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:05 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;128493 wrote:
If all these intelligent minds think, or thought, this, then I must be missing something.

Why would Moore say such a thing? As far as I am concerned, the proof is all around us. I wonder what sort of proof he was looking for.

It makes absolutely no sense to me how one can, in the same breathe, state that a dozen people agree about the color and shape of a table, admit those people are seeing the same table, and then deny that an external world exists. No matter if they are perceiving the table differently, doesn't it seem reasonable that there is a table, and that the table is real? I don't see the reason in believing otherwise. I don't see a good reason to doubt.


Russell were not denying that there is an extern world, R. was an ontological realist like me and Ken and most people in general. I know of almost no anti-realists (I recall one from another discussion board and he was plain stupid).

What R. claimed is that we do not experience tables or any of the other objects we usually talk about as examples in any strictly speaking direct sense. What we experience are sensations that these objects cause us to have.
For instance, in the case of the table, light emits from the sun travels to the Earth and reflects upon the table (some of it) and the light then proceeds to travel into our eyes were nerves are caused to send signals to the brain which then experiences that light. Surely we are designed by evolution to believe that there is an external world and there is, and there is good reason to think so, but the reasons are only explanatory in a sense.
Positing an external world is the best explanation of the sense-data (the experiences) we have. I have no idea of how an anti-realist would explain sense-data, though he might deny its existence I suppose. In this sense, all external objects are explanatory posits.

There are other senses of "explanatory posit" as it is used in the sciences, especially in physics to mean things like so far 'unobserved' (in some sense) sub-atomic particles. Before we could observe (in some sense) microbes there too were an explanatory posit (if I recall correctly someone posited them before they were observable in a microscope).
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:06 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;128493 wrote:
If all these intelligent minds think, or thought, this, then I must be missing something.

Why would Moore say such a thing? As far as I am concerned, the proof is all around us. I wonder what sort of proof he was looking for.

It makes absolutely no sense to me how one can, in the same breathe, state that a dozen people agree about the color and shape of a table, admit those people are seeing the same table, and then deny that an external world exists. No matter if they are perceiving the table differently, doesn't it seem reasonable that there is a table, and that the table is real? I don't see the reason in believing otherwise. I don't see a good reason to doubt.


I didn't say that Moore said that. I said that Moore quoted Kant as saying that. In his essay "Proof of an External World" he attempts to prove just what Kant said it was a "scandal to philosophy" that it has not been proved.

No one of those people who expressed reasons for skepticism denied that there is an external world. Descartes, Kant, and the others believed there was an external world, and, in various ways, tried to overcome the argument from illusion and other skeptical arguments. David Hume famously wrote that he believed there was an external world, but that it could not be proved that there is, and Hume thought that we ought ask not whether there is an external world, but why we believe there is an external world. And he thought that was because we cannot help believing there is an external world. That it is an instinctual belief.

In general (although there may be disagreement about this) I think that the doubt that there is an external world is justified by these philosophers because they hold that it would be possible for us to have all of the evidence we now have for an external world, and yet that there be no external world.
0 Replies
 
Emil
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:06 am
@Scottydamion,
Scottydamion;128500 wrote:
It's the room for doubt that's the problem. It isn't necessarily a denial that an external world exists, only an admittance of the possibility, and that possibility has been shown in many examples, the classics being Descartes's.

So the can of worms is that we could be misled about all of the intuitive ways that we try to justify things, and if that is the case then nothing is justified. So saying it isn't reasonable would be no longer justified.


I don't think Descartes' example (evil demon) shows that there might be no external world. We may just ask where this demon is? In the external world of course. Everything that is, is in the external world which is the same as the world.

I think D. example showed that the world might be very different than it is, that we might not have bodies but only minds/brains.

---------- Post added 02-15-2010 at 06:10 PM ----------

kennethamy;128502 wrote:
I didn't say that Moore said that. I said that Moore quoted Kant as saying that. In his essay "Proof of an External World" he attempts to prove just what Kant said it was a "scandal to philosophy" that it has not been proved.

No one of those people who expressed reasons for skepticism denied that there is an external world. Descartes, Kant, and the others believed there was an external world, and, in various ways, tried to overcome the argument from illusion and other skeptical arguments. David Hume famously wrote that he believed there was an external world, but that it could not be proved that there is, and Hume thought that we ought ask not whether there is an external world, but why we believe there is an external world. And he thought that was because we cannot help believing there is an external world. That it is an instinctual belief.

In general (although there may be disagreement about this) I think that the doubt that there is an external world is justified by these philosophers because they hold that it would be possible for us to have all of the evidence we now have for an external world, and yet that there be no external world.


Can anyone describe a scenario where we have all our current evidence (in particular our sense-data) and there is no (external) world? If so, please do so. I can't imagine a non-contradictory description.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:11 am
@Emil,
Emil;128506 wrote:
I don't think Descartes' example (evil demon) shows that there might be no external world. We may just ask where this demon is? In the external world of course. Everything that is, is in the external world which is the same as the world.

I think D. example showed that the world might be very different than it is, that we might not have bodies but only minds/brains.


Descartes' demon is just a literary device for making the point. The point is, however, that we might have all the evidence we now have for an external world, and yet, there might not be an external world. (The same goes for Putnam's "brain in vat"). Why would that be self-contradictory? Something like that happens when we are dreaming. (Which, of course, is still another argument).
Emil
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:35 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;128514 wrote:
Descartes' demon is just a literary device for making the point. The point is, however, that we might have all the evidence we now have for an external world, and yet, there might not be an external world. (The same goes for Putnam's "brain in vat"). Why would that be self-contradictory? Something like that happens when we are dreaming. (Which, of course, is still another argument).


Where is brain in a vat? If it is anywhere, then it is in the external world. Does the brain in vat exist? If yes, then it is exists in the external world. Of course, if something exists or is in the external world, then the external world exists.

It is easy to describe an impossible situation without directly contradicting yourself if you just leave out enough details. The details are important.
Scottydamion
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:37 am
@Emil,
Emil;128506 wrote:
I don't think Descartes' example (evil demon) shows that there might be no external world. We may just ask where this demon is? In the external world of course. Everything that is, is in the external world which is the same as the world.

I think D. example showed that the world might be very different than it is, that we might not have bodies but only minds/brains.

---------- Post added 02-15-2010 at 06:10 PM ----------



Can anyone describe a scenario where we have all our current evidence (in particular our sense-data) and there is no (external) world? If so, please do so. I can't imagine a non-contradictory description.



If existence is random and independent, then existence could randomly be internal, "all in your head".

If our reasoning behind justification is void then anything could be true.

Another useful (much more useful than the above) example is the phantom arm, where if you lose a limb you still feel as if it is there. Just imagine a phantom world where all of your senses are produced by your mind for your mind.
Emil
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:39 am
@Scottydamion,
Scottydamion;128533 wrote:
If existence is random and independent, then existence could randomly be internal, "all in your head".

If our reasoning behind justification is void then anything could be true.


What does this even mean, if anything?

Quote:
Another useful (much more useful than the above) example is the phantom arm, where if you lose a limb you still feel as if it is there. Just imagine a phantom world where all of your senses are produced by your mind for your mind.


Where is the mind? Does the mind exist? If yes, then it exists in the external world. If it does, then there is an external world... See above.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:41 am
@Emil,
Emil;128530 wrote:
Where is brain in a vat?


Who knows? But it is just another literary device. I don't like it either. But its failure does not show that it is not possible that we have all the evidence that we now have, and there be no external world. Forget the literary devices which may fail for the reason you give. Is it self-contradictory that we have all the evidence for an external world we do have, and that there be no external world?
Scottydamion
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:42 am
@Emil,
Emil;128534 wrote:
Where is the mind? Does the mind exist? If yes, then it exists in the external world. If it does, then there is an external world... See above.


Then what would be your definition of a non-external world? Is the distinction not usually placed with the assumption of the physical?
0 Replies
 
Emil
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:44 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;128535 wrote:
Who knows? But it is just another literary device.


Alright. But then I have still not seen a coherent description of a scenario where we have all our current evidence but there is no external world. I'm inclined to think all such scenarios are self-contradictory.

Quote:
I don't like it either. But its failure does not show that it is not possible that we have all the evidence that we now have, and there be no external world.


That's right.

Quote:
Forget the literary devices which may fail for the reason you give. Is it self-contradictory that we have all the evidence for an external world we do have, and that there be no external world?


Where is all this evidence that we have and where are we? In the external world? Do we exist? If not, then what are you even asking? I'm inclined to believe that question is false (yes, I think that makes sense to say).

---------- Post added 02-15-2010 at 06:45 PM ----------

Scottydamion;128536 wrote:
Then what would be your definition of a non-external world? Is the distinction not usually placed with the assumption of the physical?


I don't know what "non-external world" means. This is why I wrote earlier that I consider "external world" to refer to the same thing as "world" does.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 11:56 am
@fast,
Emil wrote:
What R. claimed is that we do not experience tables or any of the other objects we usually talk about as examples in any strictly speaking direct sense. What we experience are sensations that these objects cause us to have.

This is what I'm saying makes no sense to me. First, what is this strictly speaking direct sense (again contrasted with how we normally perceive the world)? And second, why does the fact that we experience the world with our senses mean that we are not experiencing the world in a strictly speaking direct sense?

In other words, this strictly speaking direct sense (which has been called several different things in this thread and elsewhere) seems made up, in order to support these claims that we aren't perceiving the true external world. It is as if these people have conjured some sort of ethereal realm where no observers are present, and in this realm the true properties exist, untainted or manipulated by perspective!

ScottyDamion wrote:

It's the room for doubt that's the problem. It isn't necessarily a denial that an external world exists, only an admittance of the possibility, and that possibility has been shown in many examples, the classics being Descartes's.


The room for doubt is not the problem. In fact, it isn't a problem at all. You can doubt all you like, but if there's no good reason to doubt, no rational person will listen. The mere fact that we might not be experiencing the real world, is no reason to think we aren't experiencing the real world. If we persist like this, we're driving philosophy off the damn cliff.

Emil wrote:

I don't know what "non-external world" means. This is why I wrote earlier that I consider "external world" to refer to the same thing as "world" does.


Maybe he just means what is mind-dependent.
Scottydamion
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 12:03 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;128546 wrote:
The room for doubt is not the problem. In fact, it isn't a problem at all. You can doubt all you like, but if there's no good reason to doubt, no rational person will listen.


But that's exactly the point... if what we consider rational is really arbitrary, then "there's no good reason to doubt" holds no water.

So the admittance of the possibility is more of a humbling factor than anything else, and that is important to me for the sake of trying to understand other people's views.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 12:13 pm
@Scottydamion,
Scottydamion;128548 wrote:
But that's exactly the point... if what we consider rational is really arbitrary, then "there's no good reason to doubt" holds no water.


No, stop that. Infinite regress, my friend. There's this "question everything" pandemic within society currently, and it has to stop. Someone started it thinking it was a good thing, and maybe it was at the time, but it has spawned a demon. A bloody demon. Now everyone I know questions everything, everything, even without reason. And all the while they think they're being intellectual for having done so. This is not rational thought, this is a form of paranoia, actually. It's worse than a stagnant mind, this repetitious, mindless, intensely skeptical doubt system people have in place.

Quote:

So the admittance of the possibility is more of a humbling factor than anything else, and that is important to me for the sake of trying to understand other people's views.


People can be wrong. We cannot doubt logic and rational thought, for the moment we do we've gone mad, religious, or poetic. And though I have no problem with madness, religion, or poetry, we must not bring that sort of thing this way! Keep that over there! Far, far over there. Not near the science forum, and definitely not near the logic forum! :poke-eye:
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 12:22 pm
@Emil,
Emil;128537 wrote:
Alright. But then I have still not seen a coherent description of a scenario where we have all our current evidence but there is no external world. I'm inclined to think all such scenarios are self-contradictory.



That's right.



Where is all this evidence that we have and where are we? In the external world? Do we exist? If not, then what are you even asking? I'm inclined to believe that question is false (yes, I think that makes sense to say).

---------- Post added 02-15-2010 at 06:45 PM ----------



I don't know what "non-external world" means. This is why I wrote earlier that I consider "external world" to refer to the same thing as "world" does.


But asking these questions, doesn't show that the hypothesis that we can have all the evidence we have, and there is no external world is contradictory (or incoherent- whatever that means). There are problems with skepticism about the external world, but I think that the problems lie with arguments like the argument from illusion and the rest. I don't believe there is a "short way" with this issue by showing there is something self-contradictory about the hypothesis. I think the various arguments have to be examined, and their assumptions exposed.
Scottydamion
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 12:23 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;128553 wrote:
No, stop that. Infinite regress, my friend. There's this "question everything" pandemic within society currently, and it has to stop. Someone started it thinking it was a good thing, and maybe it was at the time, but it has spawned a demon. A bloody demon. Now everyone I know questions everything, everything, even without reason. And all the while they think they're being intellectual for having done so. This is not rational thought, this is a form of paranoia, actually. It's worse than a stagnant mind, this repetitious, mindless, intensely skeptical doubt system people have in place.



People can be wrong. We cannot doubt logic and rational thought, for the moment we do we've gone mad, religious, or poetic. And though I have no problem with madness, religion, or poetry, we must not bring that sort of thing this way! Keep that over there! Far, far over there. Not near the science forum, and definitely not near the logic forum! :poke-eye:


"No, stop that." lol

I do not end with the doubt however. "the moment we do we've gone mad, religious, or poetic." I see the opposite! Or at least I see doubt as a great cure for the "rationale" of the mad, religious, or poetic (leaving poetic in there just for kicks). I think the pursuit of knowledge starts with doubting all things, not that it ends there.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Feb, 2010 12:27 pm
@Scottydamion,
Scottydamion;128558 wrote:
"No, stop that." lol

I do not end with the doubt however. "the moment we do we've gone mad, religious, or poetic." I see the opposite! Or at least I see doubt as a great cure for the "rationale" of the mad, religious, or poetic (leaving poetic in there just for kicks). I think the pursuit of knowledge starts with doubting all things, not that it ends there.


If you doubt everything, always, how can you advance in this knowledge pursuit? A moment must come when you admit that something is true, and believe it true until it is proven false. Why should we doubt things we believe true just because they might not be true? That seems utterly insane! Smart questioning is preferred over mindless questioning.
 

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