Advocate wrote:Are people really going to vote, next month, for more tax cuts for the rich, more erosion of the Bill of Rights, more people without health-care insurance, etc.? If not, the Dems will take over this Fall.
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Everyone who paid taxes before the tax cut received a tax cut. That is a fact, the pseudological (i.e., falsifying or lying) news media and many Democrats not withstanding.
What is the moral and/or legal justification for say Bill Gates or Michael Dell paying 35% tax on each of their dollars of income, while I pay only 15%?
I think there is no moral or legal justification for their dollars of income being discriminated against. I think we all who receive dollars of income ought to pay the same tax rate.
Moral Argument
Quote:The Declaration of Independence
(Adopted in Congress 4 July 1776)
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We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are [equally] endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable rights, that among these are life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
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Legal Argument
Quote:The Constitution of the United States of America
Effective as of March 4, 1789
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Article I
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Section 8. The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts and excises, to pay the debts and provide for the common defense and general welfare of the United States; but all duties, imposts and excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
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Article IV
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Section 2. The citizens of each state shall be entitled to all privileges and immunities of citizens in the several states.
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Article VI
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This Constitution, and the laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the Constitution or laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.
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The Bill of Rights (1791)
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Amendment V
No person shall be ... deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.
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Amendments XI-XXVII
To the US Constitution
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Amendment XVI (1913)
The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several states, and without regard to any census of enumeration.
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Please note that the 16th Amendment does not amend these parts of the Constitution:
"Article I
Section 8. ... all duties, imposts and excises
shall be uniform throughout the United States;
Article IV
Section 2. The citizens of each state shall be entitled to
all privileges and
immunities of citizens in the several states.
Article VI
This Constitution, and the laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States,
shall be the supreme law of the land ... anything in the Constitution or laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding."
Also, please note that the 16th Amendment does not amend this part of the 5th Amendment:
"Amendment V
No person shall be ... deprived of life, liberty,
or property, without due process of law;"
Yes, I know the federal courts have
legislated otherwise. But it is is not lawful for federal or state courts to legislate:
Quote:Article I
Section 1. All legislative powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives.
Article II
Section 1. The executive power shall be vested in a President of the United States of America.
Article III
Section 1. The judicial power of the United States, shall be vested in one Supreme Court, and in such inferior courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish.
Please note Article I Section 1 says: "
All legislative powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States"