old europe wrote:Ticomaya wrote:Do you believe that if you say something you absolutely believe in good faith to be true and with no intent to deceive, but which later turns out to be untrue, what you said was a lie and you are a liar?
Note I added the requirement that there be a good faith belief in the truth of the matter asserted, and no intent to deceive.
That doesn't really seem to be too different from what Brandon was asking. Because how would you prove that somebody was not acting based on his
honest, good-faithed belief?
Look at Foxy's example of Clinton's lie about not having sexual relations with Monica. Clinton was certainly intending to deceive his audience. His was a lie.
And as it turns out, a provable one. But whether provable or not is immaterial to the essential issue of whether a statement is a lie. You seem to be hung up on the element of proof.
Quote:You could show that stating something in one way ("I had no sexual relationship"/"We found the WMD") gives somebody an advantage over stating something in another way ("I had sex with her"/"We haven't found anything"). You could, from that, infer that there was an intent to deceive and then deduce that that was a lie.
Is that what you're trying to get at?
I suppose so, although I don't know that I would use the word "advantage." The intent with Clinton's "I had no sexual relationship" statement was to
deceive or mislead those listening to him. That's why I've stated I think Bush's comment when he said all wiretaps require a court order was a lie, because I think it is reasonable to infer an intent to mislead. (Putting aside for the moment whether there exist any legitimate justifications for the lie.)