parados wrote:Why would it depend on the Senator? He is denying constituents of their chosen representative. Sounds like interfering in government to me.
If he was killing the senator because the senator voted the wrong way, that would be interfering with the Senate.
But if he killed a senator in a duel over a pretty girl, that wouldn't be an attack on the government.
parados wrote:The president takes an oath to uphold the laws. His willful violation of laws would be pretty much an attack on the government.
That would depend on the nature of the violation. There are plenty of crimes that aren't attacks on the government.
parados wrote:As has been stated several times in the NSA spying situation, the President is encroaching on Congress ability to write laws when he fails to follow them.
It's been stated, but it doesn't make a lot of sense. Bush breaking the law doesn't prevent Congress from writing laws.
parados wrote:You are proposing a President that can do anything he wants as long as he doesn't do it to the courts.
Well, he can undermine a criminal investigation in his own justice department and get into trouble (just ask Nixon). And if a president actually interfered with Congress, that would also be impeachable.
parados wrote:Of course that does lead to another question. Can the President be sued civilly if he commits murder while President? If he fails to respond to the subpeona I assume at that time he can be impeached under your scenario.
That would probably be the case, yes.
parados wrote:Quote:Some history: The Framers borrowed the phrase from Britain, where it was first used in connection with an impeachment in 1380. There were several instances of its use during the colonial period: in 1666 Viscount John Mordaunt was impeached for the high crime and misdemeanor of making uncivil addresses to a woman; in 1680 Sir William Scroggs, lord chief justice of the King's Bench, was impeached on account of "his frequent and notorious excesses and debaucheries," bringing "the highest scandal on the public justice of the kingdom"; in 1701 Edward, Earl of Oxford, a member of the King's Council, was impeached for procuring an office for someone "known to be a person of ill fame and reputation."
http://www.findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_m1282/is_n17_v50/ai_21129268
You still haven't addressed the issue of maladministration being a reason for impeachment since it is a high misdemeanor.
Well, it's sort of a paradox, since they adopted "high crimes and misdemeanors" because they felt maladministration was too broad a term.
They obviously felt that "high crimes and misdemeanors" was a more narrow term than maladministration, but the history would seem to show that it is a broader term.
There is a piece I am missing somewhere, which will probably make the intent of the framers a lot more clear when I figure it out.