@hawkeye10,
Quote:Washington is well recognized as one of three states that have moved to affirmative consent, which means that we are now a "if you did not get a yes then it is no" state
No, Hawkeye,
all consent is "affirmative consent"--that's what "consent" means, it means "agreement"--in the case of Washington, it is "freely willing, knowing agreement". All states define "consent" in the affirmative--there is no other way to define the word "consent". But all sexual assault laws laws hinge on lack of consent, because it is the lack of consent that makes the act criminal.
And quite specifically, the rape laws of the state of Washington
do not say, that "if you did not get a yes then it is no". They say quite the opposite. They specifically require the "No" to be clearly expressed either verbally or through conduct. The lack of consent
must be clearly expressed--it is not just the absence of "yes", or silence, or doing nothing--the lack of consent
must be expressed.
IT IS A SIMPLE ONE SENTENCE LAW AND AFTER REPEATEDLY DISCUSSING IT, YOU STILL CAN'T UNDERSTAND IT!
This is the law you are referring to
Quote:Rape in the 3rd Degree
(a) Where the victim did not consent as defined in RCW 9A.44.010(7), to sexual intercourse with the perpetrator and such lack of consent was clearly expressed by the victim's words or conduct
You really continue to make a complete fool of yourself, Hawkeye. If you are of average intelligence, you should be able to understand that simple one sentence law. It means exactly what it says. If the victim expresses lack of consent, and indicates, "No", and sexual intercourse occurs, the act is rape in the 3rd degree.
That's what makes it a "No means no" law. If you don't require an
expressed "No", you don't have a "No means no" law. Even you should be able to figure that one out.
What you also fail to appreciate is that your state law is very clear which helps to reduce misinterpretation--it requires the
lack of consent to be actively expressed--which means the perpetrator had to disregard the victim's clearly expressed protestations. That is a a very clear indication of why the act is being regarded as rape. It is implying that rape is an intentional disregard of the victim's
expressed lack of consent, and consequently implying that the rape is an intentional act.
Quote:You are of course once again lying in the hopes that somebody might not be bright enough to detect your dishonesty.
Hawkeye, your gratuitous insults do not conceal the fact that you repeatedly misinterpret and distort a simple ONE SENTENCE rape law that couldn't be worded more clearly. I am not lying. I can understand what that law says and you can't.
Your problem is, you are so caught up in your craziness about how the "feminists" have changed the laws that you are assuming the law says you must get the partner's consent in order for sexual intercourse to be considered legal. But that's not what your rape in the 3rd degree law says--that is not how it defines rape--it defines rape in terms of lack of consent, clearly expressed lack of consent. There's a big difference between legally requiring her to say, "Yes" and simply requiring that her "No" cannot be ignored. But you, apparently cannot see the difference, because that wouldn't fit in with your preconceived notions of how the "feminists" allegedly changed the laws, so you wind up distorting the actual law so it will fit in with your crazy beliefs about the feminists.
The more you belabor the issue of this particular law the bigger the fool you make of yourself. Your thinking is hopelessly muddled and confused. The law is quite simple and clear--you just don't understand it correctly. The law means
exactly what it says.