@joefromchicago,
After resting my brain with a weekend, I think I might be seeing an angle relating to this thread that does not seem to have been addressed. That being that those that were instrumental in effecting the Confederacy surely knew that much of the rest of the civilized world had already outlawed slavery, or the issue of slavery was something that other countries were wrestling with also. So, it might just have been that the real concern for the Confederacy was to end slavery eventually, AS THEY SAW FIT. In effect, not having the North involved in their evolving into a non-slavery economy. The fact that documentation (for posterity) talks about slavery being the cause for secession might just be, in my opinion, an attempt to not "spill the beans" prematurely, since then the North might think that it was the North's ethical right to officiate, since they already ended slavery.
What makes me think that the above is not just a flippant thought is that 1860 was only 71 years after the U.S. officially became independent of England. And, since England was a world power at that time, I can believe that other world powers were possibly alluding to England being foolish for allowing the U.S. to come to fruition, in context of slavery existing in some states, and England outlawing slavery in the early 1800's. On the world stage, England might have felt it could become the laughing stock of ethical international thinking?
Anyway, the South surely saw the handwriting on the wall for chattel slavery eventually ending. Be that the case, they surely would have wanted to keep the North's nose out of their own paradigm, to effect an end to that type of economic system.
So, perhaps, this thread should be re-titled "The Confederacy was About Autonomy In Ending Slavery Before the Turn of the 20th Century"? Can anyone, in the North or South, imagine slavery continuing into the 20th Century? Only 40 years after the start of the Civil War?
Was there any other country that had slavery into the 20th century? The handwriting was on the wall, so to speak, and I conjecture that the South saw it vividly, and for a multitude of reasons did not want the North meddling into their changed economic system.
Lastly, only through secession, and then developing a paradigm for ending slavery, could the South be sure that the demographic of agrarian workers not leave (go North). By being a separate country, those workers could be "manipulated" to stay and work under a new economic paradigm.
I would think some historian would have thought these thoughts previously. I surely couldn't be original.