Re: Question for the left and right:
flaja wrote:If the Right cannot define victory in Iraq because victory is such a vague concept, how is defeat not equally a vague concept, i.e., something that the Left cannot define?
I never said the Right couldn't define "victory." I said that the Bush administration has been unable to define "victory." I suppose there are conservatives who are quite capable of defining both "victory" and "defeat" in relation to the Iraq War.
flaja wrote:Quote:You must have missed this the first time I wrote it:
The only "victory" that is both possible and favorable, then, would be for the US to withdraw its forces from Iraq immediately and attempt to repair the damage for which it is responsible. Any other outcome would be a defeat.
In other words you define defeat by the simple fact that we are in Iraq in the first place- just like I said.
Elsewhere you've said that you have an undergraduate degree in biology, and that you have 40 semester hours in history classes. It's a shame that, during that extensive (and mystifyingly prolonged) collegiate education you were unable to develop any reading comprehension skills.
flaja wrote:Who's to say that your interpretation of the case law is the correct interpretation?
Who's to say it isn't?
flaja wrote:Care to give some examples as to when, where and why international disputes were settled by arbitration before 1787?
You really expect me to find weblinks to corroborate data that I have accumulated over the past 30 years or so?
flaja wrote:And if submitting a dispute to international arbitration was our only recourse for dealing with foreign nations, we could not be a sovereign nation because we would have always been dependent upon and subject to the whims of other nations.
As noted liberal Ronald Reagan once said: "There you go again!" I never said that arbitration would be the
only method of resolving international disputes. I merely pointed out that it was a method of resolving disputes that was not unknown to the drafters of the constitution. Certainly the arbitration provisions included in the Jay Treaty of 1794 confirm that fact.
flaja wrote:Yes it does. By definition crimes committed on the high seas are not committed within the jurisdiction of any nation since no nation has sovereignty over the high seas. Thus piracy has nothing to do with statutory international law. But Article I gives the Congress the power to make statutory international law.
There is no such thing as "statutory international law."
flaja wrote:Even if this is true, the Constitution does not limit offenses against the law of nations to piracy and felonies committed on the high seas. Congress can and does decide what other actions violate the law of nations.
You really do have trouble understanding the written word. Perhaps if I type slower you'll be able to get the gist of it.
I never said that piracies and felonies committed on the high seas are the only offenses against the law of nations. Just because piracy is an offense against the law of nations doesn't mean that every offense against the law of nations is piracy. A proposition can only be partially converted. "All dogs are mammals" doesn't mean that "all mammals are dogs."
flaja wrote:I don't see where the Constitution denies such power to other nations. Every nation must have this power in order to maintain their individual sovereignty. But then the idiots on the Left don't want the U.S. to have any sovereignty.
The US constitution can neither grant nor deny any power to other nations.