georgeob1 wrote:The stunning 1967 victory was - in my view - Israel's moment of truth. They could have created a Palestinian state in most of the West Bank and begun a process of mutual economic development which might have changed the political trajectory of the region.
Crucially, General Assembly Resolution 181, which i have linked in this thread, calls for the establishment of, quote: "PLAN OF PARTITION WITH ECONOMIC UNION,"--and further refers to:
Quote:The objectives of the Economic Union of Palestine shall be:
A customs union;
A joint currency system providing for a single foreign exchange rate;
Operation in the common interest on a non-discriminatory basis of railways inter-State highways; postal, telephone and telegraphic services and ports and airports involved in international trade and commerce;
Joint economic development, especially in respect of irrigation, land reclamation and soil conservation;
Access for both States and for the City of Jerusalem on a non-discriminatory basis to water and power facilities.
This is precisely to what George refers, and precisely the failure of which undertaking can be seen to be a principle cause for the guerilla actions by Palestinians which had repeated lead to Israel taking violent, overwhelming and disproportionate action against a people toward whom they did not keep their diplomatic engagements.
Advocate slings around charges that i cannot comprehend what i read, but he states himself that: "Israel was not directly responding to Egyptian attacks in 1956, when Israel was part of a force attacking the canal." Of course, as i have pointed out, Israel was warned off the canal, and did not attack the canal, which the Anglo-French force had taken in response to Egyptian nationalization of the canal. But he then states, in the very next sentence: " But leading up to this attack, Egypt, which owned Gaza, effected many attacks on Israel." So he contradicts himself, while claiming that i have a reading comprehension problem. Does irony not sink in with this member.
Then Advocate states: "Set, your arguments are so lame. Egypt's blockade of an Israeli port was tantamount to an attack -- it was an act of war. Thus, it is ridiculous to say that Israel started the '67 war." This is a strawman--at no time have i stated that Israel started teh 1967 war. However, i do understand that George has correctly stated the case, which is that Israel anticipated an attack (they were already fighting the Syrians and had been for weeks), and therefore, launched a pre-emptive attack on Egyptian and Jordania military air resources.
So, if Advocate wishes to claim that i have a reading comprehension problem, i would suggest that he first eliminate the embarrassingly obvious contradictions in his own statements, and that he improve his own reading comprehesion to the extent that he will not attempt to take me to task for remarks made by other members.
George points out the core of the problem, which the apologists for Israel will not admit:
Israel is not the perpetual victim its apologists would have us see. It is in fact, along with its neighbors, an antagonist, a perpetrator and occasionally a victim of an awful conflict that is continued only by the sustained intolerance, intransigence and selfishness of its parties - Israel included.