@InfraBlue,
InfraBlue wrote:The problem of an extremely high rate of gun crimes is not supposed.
I suppose whether "a given situation" represents a problem is a matter of opinion.
I don't see it as a problem if someone is murdered with a gun instead of with a knife or other weapon.
I see the murder itself as a problem (at least if it is actually murder, justified self defense is not murder), but the form of weapon that is used seems pretty inconsequential to me.
Likewise I don't think it matters whether someone is raped at gunpoint instead of raped at knifepoint. The rape itself is the problem there, not the form of weapon used.
The same as well if someone is robbed at gunpoint instead of robbed at knifepoint (or robbed with any other form of weapon).
InfraBlue wrote:Your premise is incorrect. Most of the assault weapons used in crimes are legally owned.
What would be an example of a legally-owned assault weapon being used to commit a crime?
InfraBlue wrote:It is not adequate. The assertion that any gun that is used in a crime can be traced to its owner using Form 4473s is a fallacy.
All you need to do is trace the chain of ownership from person to person until you get to the current owner. If a past owner sold their gun to someone else, they just pass the investigators on to the next owner.
InfraBlue wrote:Limiting the availability and ownership of guns, i.e. quantity of guns, would not prevent people from exercising their right to have guns, hence, it would not be a violation of that right.
Wouldn't limiting the ownership of guns involve telling some people that they can not have guns?
How would that not violate their right to have guns?