Re: Jutlamd, Imperial German Navy
chronos20th wrote:Wilhem II wanted a navy because of the British connection - he had been taken by grannie across the Solent repeatedly as a child to see her navy.
This kind of psychologizing is nonsense, equivalent to blaming the First World War on Wilhelm's withered right arm. Germany acquired a navy because, according to the military theory of the time, great powers were expected to have great navies. Wilhelm was an influential booster, but he wasn't the cause of the navy buildup.
chronos20th wrote:One thing upset the calculations and caused failure - the british "navalists" were forbidden at the last moment to have a "close blockade" and such schemes as a landing in Scleswig-Holstein to capture Kiel and entering the Baltic for a landing - which would have almost certainly caused disaster and on which the german tactics were based.
German naval tactics were certainly not based on defending against a seaborne assault; they were Mahanian battle-fleet tactics, like every other naval power had at the time. And the British admiralty considered, but quickly dropped, any plans for a landing on German soil (which, in any case, would have been in lower Saxony, not in Schleswig-Holstein).
chronos20th wrote:One problem was however the civilian economy in german which was not really organised for total war, and therefore steel production and shipbuilding suffered. had it been organised like the Anglo-Saxon countries there would have been no problem completing these ships rapidly and building others.
No economy was organized for total war, and the Germans did quite well in building their ships.
chronos20th wrote:Incidentally this is untrue and can be proved by reading Niail Furguson's book "The Pity of War". He's an economic historian and proves that France and Russia were spending huge sums from 1910 much more than Germany. Also germany was spending TOO LITTLE on ots army, largely because of the indirect taxation system
If the level of military spending is directly correlated to "aggression," then Ferguson's case is proven. But then there is no correlation. If there were, the United States would have been the most aggressive power in the world for the past 60 years.
chronos20th wrote:Had Imperial Germany wished to be more agressive it could have reformed its tax system to a direct one and got the Reichstag to vote the money, the two basis probems.
Germany's domestic politics did not permit a thoroughgoing reform of the tax structure. Nevertheless, Germany pursued a foreign policy that can fairly be characterized as "aggressive," especially after the Kaiser dismissed Bismarck in 1890.
chronos20th wrote:France lead by Delcasse and Poincarre was trying to grab Morocco, which Germany opposed because it disturbed the Balance of Power in Europe.
France's designs on Morocco had absolutely no bearing on the European balance of power, as Berlin was well aware. Germany saw Morocco as a means to drive a wedge between France and Britain, and as a bargaining chip for colonial concessions elsewhere. As it turned out, Berlin seriously miscalculated, both in 1905 and 1911, although it managed to get territory in central Africa as compensation for permitting France to exercise control over Morocco. The
bec de canard territory, added to German Cameroon, however, was meager compensation for its diplomatic defeat.