neologist wrote:Added later:
I just went back a page or two and I see where you missed the explanation of 'those standing here will not taste death.' It is not a part of the prophecy recorded at Matthew chapter 24.
And, dadburn it! You really did screw up the order of the passages and their citations. You should open the bible and read it for yourself.
real life wrote:Sorry that you tried to shoehorn other verses in there to make this say something else. It just doesn't say it.
These accusations are getting old and tiresome. I'll say this one more time and hope that you two take a few seconds to try and comprehend this. In the FIRST post, I quoted Luke. Yes, it was more of a generalization and not a word for word quote, it was simply meant to give you the area of Luke to which I was referring. I apologize if this is heretical or whatever to you and already stated I wouldn't do it again and even corrected myself.
My SECOND post quoted Matthew. Here I gave you a word for word quote of the passage, I didn't shoehorn anything. Luke and Matthew say basically the same thing so it didn't really matter which one I used. Either way from the second post on this crap about me shoehorning things in and making verses up is just a weak way to divert from the question at hand. The constant insinuations that I have not read the text and am taking this out of a mystical "101 bible contradictions" is also irritating. I've given many examples in my time here and not done the simple copy/paste from websites.
That being said, I know that I quoted from two different chapters of Matthew. They both say the same thing:
Matthew 16:27 wrote:For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
Again like in Luke, Jesus will make a triumphant return with his angels to reward EVERY man according to his works (sounds like Judgement day). Now this leads into the next verse which I quoted earlier:
Matthew 16:28 wrote: Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.
Now in the prior verse, Jesus is talking about his great return and the judging of all men's deeds. Now in this verse he is saying that this is something that's going to happen soon. Some of you here will not even taste death before the kingdom of heaven is upon you. So first he's talking about judging all men's deeds and then in the next sentence he says the kingdom of heaven will be upon you before some of you taste death. Sounds pretty damn specific to me.
Matthew 24:34 wrote:Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
Has the kingdom of heaven arrived on earth as it says in Matthew 16? No. Has all the prophecies in Matthew 24 been fulfilled? No. Do you not see why I took both quotes (HINT: LOOK AT THE WORDS THAT OPEN THE VERSE, PRETTY SIMILAR EH) and put them side by side?
Neo, you say it is a prophecy of the fall of Jerusalem. Not only does your buddy Real Life disagree with you but you never answered my question. If this is a prophecy of the fall of Jerusalem then what is with all the nonsense about God coming down on a great cloud with the angels blaring their trumpets? Did any of this occur during the fall of Jerusalem? If not, I'm afraid you and Jesus have got to be talking about two different times in history. Sorry.
Real life, you accuse me of shoehorning and then you post the EXACT same verses that I already posted in my second quote. Why? Maybe you didn't even take the time to read my response. Otherwise why reiterate what I already stated and then accuse me of not reading it at all. Doesn't make much sense.
Quote:His contemporary generation did not see the signs beginning to happen, so it should be obvious that it was not His contemporaries that He was referring to.
Yeah, that's one explanation. Another could be his contemporaries did not see what he was referring to, therefore, he was wrong. Not that I expect you to be able to grasp that in your close minded reality but it is a feasible second option. There's really no way to win with your type of logic. If it has purportedly happened, then the bible is prophetic. If it hasn't happened then it's a prophecy of the future. And I'm the unoriginal one?