@blatham,
blatham wrote:
Tough to formulate any sort of response that might stand in the face of such wit but...
Up until 1980, it was legal in every state in the nation for a husband to rape his wife.
Why might this have been the case? Either of you two brave chaps care to formulate some cultural analysis or explanation for this rather odd fact?
I think your statement may be a bit misleading, in that it is very likely that the same situation likely existed in most countries then, even including (gasp!) Canada, and in that, in many or most cases, the supposed "legality" was implicit in the then legal definition of rape (and not an explicit exclusion as you mistakenly infer).
I don't find this odd at all. Perhaps, when you recover your breath, you could provide us a cultural analysis establishing the "oddness" of the earlier prevailing perspective .