@parados,
parados wrote:
Yes? Islam is practiced in backward countries.
If you want to argue that German influences occurred then we could point to that for the antisemitism in Islam, could we not?
I'm not arguing anything. I'm merely stating verifiable historical facts. "Backward" was your term, not mine.
In general after WWI and the imposition of British and French colonialism in the Middle East, a few secular leaning political movements arose there with modernist aims similar to the revolution that Mustafa Kemal (Ataturk) was then imposing on a newly forming Turkey. Probably naturally they looked to European models other than those of the British and French who were then imposing colonial rule on them (this after the WWI Arab uprising against the Ottomans largely inspired and financed by the British). This led to the formation of the Baath Party, which did indeed promise modenist secular government, and largely kept peace among the various Moslem sects (and the several Druz, Jewish and Christian comunities) there. Unfortunately it degenerated intho the authoritarian rule of figures like Assad and Saddam Hussein.
Now there appears to be little or none of all that left, except perhaps in Egypt. Old conflicts between Sunni and Shia have erupted, now complicated by reemerging old tensions between the Farsi speaking Iranians and their Arab neighbors - a fairly complex situation that promises continuing struggles.
I'm not pointing at any sources for anti Semitism at all, However, it appears obvious that a reaction to the Post WWII creation of a Jewish state by desperate Jewish emigrees fleeing persecution in the European war and finding themselves generally unwelcome in their old homes in its aftermath (the euphamism for them then was "displaced persons") was the most likely cause, particularly coming as it did in the wake of the post WWI betrayal of Arab national aspirations by the British and French.
