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Removing the barriers between church and state.

 
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 03:11 pm
Well, TW, in the interest of fairness, i did go back to read what you'd written--and remain confident that i've understood what you wrote. Your attempt at a corollary fails, in my estimation, because you seem to think that there is some manner in which a religious organization could claim that participation in the dogma of their faith would be a requisite qualification for hiring someone to dispense federally funded aid. You make the case that the woman who had had the sex-change operation was dismissed because he was now no longer a woman (although the story seems preposterous to me--i can't imagine why a woman only, and not a man, would be required as a counselor, nor why a judge would uphold such claim--i am arguing from a basis of that being a reasonable decision, however), and therefore no longer suitable. There is no case in which a person would be unsuitable based upon their religious convictions, when employed to dispense aid under a federally funded program-which is the point which i was making, and which you apparently did not understand. The example you gave is not, therefore, "spot on" at all-it does not relate. If one can make the case that the individual concerned in your example was dismissed as lacking a necessary qualification, you can only make that correlative by stating that sharing the dogma of a religious organization dispensing federally funded aid is a necessary qualification. In such a case, the question naturally arises as to why such a qualification is necessary, unless there were a religiously dogmatic aspect to the manner in which the aid is dispensed. Such a case would be a clear violation of the establishment clause of the first amendment. The no establishment cause grows out of the Test Act, a hoary old part of the "unwritten" English constitution, now null, which required any candidate for or holder of public office (including all offices, civil and military) to have taken Anglican communion within a specified period of time, and to adjure all other religious belief. The following is from "spartacus.schoolnet" which is based in the UK:

Quote:
The Corporation Act of 1661 excluded from membership of town corporations all those who were not prepared to take the sacrament according to the rites of the Church of England. The Test Act passed in 1673 imposed the same test upon holders of civil or military office. Roman Catholics, Protestant Dissenters and followers of the Jewish faith were therefore excluded from public office.

Religious groups including Unitarians, Wesleyan Methodists, Primitive Methodists and the Society of Friends campaigned for a change in the law. In 1828 both the Corporation and Test Acts were repealed by Parliament. Roman Catholics were prevented from holding public office until the passing of the Catholic Emancipation Act of 1829. Jewish emancipation took longer and was not fully achieved until 1890.


Your statement on the origin of this clause is, to my knowledge, without foundation. Those who wrote the constitution had provided no bill of rights, and it was only the assurance that one would be provided, once a government under the new constitution had been established which convinced a sufficient number of Americans to favor ratification. Augustus Muhlenburg, the first Speaker of the House, made this the first order of business of the First Congress. The following is from "Thomas"-the Library of Congress site for legislative documents and history:
Quote:

On September 25, 1789, the First Congress of the United States therefore proposed to the state legislatures 12 amendments to the Constitution that met arguments most frequently advanced against it. The first two proposed amendments, which concerned the number of constituents for each Representative and the compensation of Congressmen, were not ratified. Articles 3 to 12, however, ratified by three-fourths of the state legislatures, constitute the first 10 amendments of the Constitution, known as the Bill of Rights.


(The first proposed amendment, setting at 50,000 the number of citizens to be represented by a single member of Congress will likely never be ratified. The second proposed amendment was ratified May 7, 1992, and reads: "No law, varying the compensation for the services of the Senators and Representatives, shall take effect, until an election of representatives shall have intervened;" - and a salutary law it is, indeed.)

The legislators who produced the bill of rights were either lawyers, or were advised by lawyers in their deliberations-as has always been the case in our nation. Early in the history of the Long Parliament (1640-1649), one member described this whole issue as "the vexed question of religion." The English became embroiled in two successive civil wars as a result, and the Puritans (excluding those who favored presbyterianism) eventually triumphed, with a good deal of aid on the battlefield from Dissenters (non-Anglican, non-Puritan Protestants). During the Army Debates in 1648 and 1649, Agitators, as they called themselves, demanded a written constitution, including a bill of rights. Cromwell and company suckered them into meeting in several small groups, to facilitate discussion, and then locked them up when they arrived for the meetings. After Cromwell's death in 1658, his son Richard failed to fill his shoes, and in the power vacuum left in England, George Monck marched south from Coldstream in Scotland with the last remaining military force in England. He eventually agreed to the restoration of the monarchy, in the person of Charles II. When Charles II died in 1685, he was succeeded by his brother James II, who was correctly suspected on planning a "re-introduction" of Catholicism into England. In 1688, many affluent members of Parliament, and their cronies not in office, began to organize a rebellion. They called upon William of Orange, the leader of the United Provinces (Holland), son of James' sister Mary, and husband of James' daughter Mary, to come and take the throne. James called for the army to assemble at Salisbury, but the officers began to dessert one by one. When John Churchill (one day to become the first Duke of Marlborough) "changed his coat," James knew the game was lost, and fled to France. This event is known to history as the "Glorious Revolution," and the Test Act was imposed in it's full vigor.

America had been settled with many who had fled England to avoid the imposition of religious penalties, and who had enjoyed both freedom of religious expression in the new world, and participation in government. John Winthrop, the first Governor of the Massachusetts Bay Colony is an important example, and he, like so many others crucial in our nation's early history, was a lawyer, who had previously been appointed to the Court of Wards and Liveries. Although he was dead at the time of the "Glorious Revolution," his legacy lived on in the government of Massachusetts, and the much more widespread franchise enjoyed in the colonies than was the case in England. The Test Act, and property qualifications made Parliament an old boys club, and Americans of that age, and the age of our revolution, understood this only too well. The "no establishment" clause of the first amendment specifically intends to remove all taint of religion from government, contrary to the characterization which you have given.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 03:12 pm
au1929 wrote:
I think that it is clear. If you are a religious organization religious discrimination is acceptable. Even when tax supported.
I can understand that if one is dealing with church business. However the tax dollars are supposedly for secular pursuits such as shelter, food and etc. Why should religion of the care giver be considered? Because along with the services comes a bit of proselytizing. I say not on my tax dollar.


It is equally clear that our very own government discriminates based on age, sex and sexual orientation as well. Should the Federal Government itself be barred from getting any public funds? If we're going to apply the standard then apply it equeally across the board.
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dyslexia
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 03:23 pm
good point fishin' but the topic at hand is one of religious nature.
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 03:30 pm
BillW wrote:
au, it would never pass constitutional muster, just like we will never see the SCOTUS cross State Rights in regards to legitimate voting in that state!


You ol' joker, you . . .

heeheeeheeheeheeheeheeheeheehee . . .

Scotus still cracks me up. Duns Scotus, the original dunce.
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au1929
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 03:35 pm
Fishin
As dyslexia pointed out the subject is religion. As for the our government I am not about to defend their actions.
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fishin
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 03:48 pm
Well, just to be clear here dyslexia, the topic is being a bit clouded by a lot of rhetoric and mistruths throughout. The guidelines developed for these groups to get funds for their programs very clearly state that the funds can NOT be used to fund direct religous activities yet several here have comments about "proselytizing" during those activities.

The comments about "religious discrimination" are a bit twisted out of shape as well. The guidelines that were published say that a religious organization can use the funds to pay for a priest, rabbi, nun, etc.. provided that while those people are participating in the program the grant was awarded for they aren't providing any type of religious indoctrination, preaching, etc.. If a Catholic hospital uses Nuns as their nursing staff then it stands to reason that if Catholics are the only church with Nuns the requirement for the applicants to be Catholic is inherent. Regardless of the employees religion, they are NOT allowed to perform any "inherently religious" activities while being paid for by Federal dollars.

The rules established at the Federal Level also don't preempt State discrimination laws so if the state prohibits discrimination based on the applicants religion than the group can't discriminate within that state. Since pretty much every state has such laws, the rhetoric about religuious discrimination in hiring is pretty much a moot point.
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dyslexia
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:02 pm
fishin' i realize i made this original post on the "other" forum and don't have the link but an example is when a church child-welfare agency advertised for a child social worker, a young man with exceptional credidentials applied for the postition and was denied because he was jewish. the position advertised had no religious component but discrimination was based solely on his "faith".
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au1929
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:03 pm
Fishin
Quote:
Since pretty much every state has such laws, the rhetoric about religious discrimination in hiring is pretty much a moot point.


Whether that is fact or not I have no idea. But regardless the federal government in my opinion should not sanction it.
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:24 pm
I go along with Au on this one--religion has no business in government activities any more than government does in religious activities. Fishin's remark about state laws on discrimination is not a valid objection to people's apprehensions, as the bulk of all non-discrimination laws require the filing of a civil suit; the potential for abuse is great, and it would require 50 separate, successful lawsuits to shut down the system, if all we have to rely on is state statutes on discriminatory hiring practices.
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fishin
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:37 pm
dyslexia - Not but 18 months ago I wasn't hired for a job as a database administrator because I wasn't a member of the Church of Scientology. Is that unfair? Nope.

If they were being funded with public dollars then they'd have to comply with the state law concerning discrimination and in this state (MA) I could have sued and I think I would have won pretty easily.

au - I don't know of any state that DOESN'T have laws against religious discrimination in hiring but I will look. The Federal government is no more sanctioning discrimination than they are sanctioning the use of unlicensed child care centers. The Federal government doesn't license child care ceneters, that is something the states do just as the states are the primary source of labor law.
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BillW
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:44 pm
And voters rights, hmmmmmmmmmm!
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fishin
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:46 pm
Setanta wrote:
...it would require 50 separate, successful lawsuits to shut down the system, if all we have to rely on is state statutes on discriminatory hiring practices.


Yes, just as it requires 50 seperate cases in most every other category of labor right now. (Although any case could be bumped to a Federal Appeals court in which case it would apply fully within that region..)

Why should religious based activities be treated differently than any other employer? The Constitution prohibits discrimination AGAINST religion as well as it prohibits discrimination in favor OF religion.
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cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:47 pm
fishin, I think the wording is "reasonable accommodation." c.i.
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fishin
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:51 pm
The wording where c.i.?
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dyslexia
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 04:52 pm
fishin' the case of the child social worker was where a church sponsored child welfare agency WAS receiving public funds and the sole reason given was his religion, said agency was careful to not ask on the application re relgion however on his list of references he included his rabbi.
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fishin
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 05:03 pm
Sounds to me like he has a valid suit then dys. If they are getting public funds then he ought to be calling the state agency that monitiors those funds and report them as well. When they loose their funding they'll quit trying to scam the system.
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cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 05:38 pm
fishin, My answer was in reference to your statements about federal and state religious' discrimination laws. c.i.
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Lightwizard
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 06:12 pm
Anyone consider what lawsuits will ensue if and when this faith based initiative goes into practice? Again, you think people trying the handle working within the government bureuaracy have any idea what the church bureaucracies are like? Especially when complicated with disclosure of what's in their books, how they dispense and manage the funds and how effective their assistance actually is to the community. I wouldn't take a cheap shot at pointing out that the Catholic church has some serious problems in that area right now, but it's sure tempting. What churches have stated that they don't want to open their books? Won't this cause a lack of coverage in areas that sorely need it? There's too many questions about this whole theory and not enough answers.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 06:28 pm
Any group that gets Federal funds has to agree to be audited regularly as a part of getting the grant (the effort that gets/uses the grant has to maintain books for their operations.). As for the Catholic Church, Catholic Charities has been getting Federal grants for decades and they have a complete set of books that has been audited all along. Throwing in what the Catholic Church does with their books concerning their Religious (albeit often illegal) activites is a non-player. They can't use public funds for those activities.

How would any of this cause a lack of coverage one way or another? I'm totally lost on that one. These groups don't automaticlly get grants just because they may have a religious tie-in. They'd have to be in the coverage area to qualify for the grant to begin with.
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Lightwizard
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2003 06:37 pm
http://www.nationalreview.com/nr_comment/nr_comment051501b.shtml
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