@Setanta,
Setanta wrote: You have a series of unsubstantiated assertions, there, Bubba. My point is that you have not established any reasonable basis for believing in the "mixing" to which you refer. This is a cause and effect fallacy. Just because pattern baldness appears in two different populations does not constitute evidence that the appearance of it one of the populations is evidence of "mixing" with the other population showing the same trait. And in fact, it is very likely an case of the fallacy of ignoring a common cause--that the appearance of pattern baldness in one population is caused in the same way in the other population, without the "mixing." You simply have no case, which, with you, is par for the course. And that is my point.
Unsubstantiated because I believe in the way of "politeness" there has been no public effort, as has been done in Spain, to correlate a percentage of the population with "Jewish DNA markers" in Germany.
Sort of like not exposing how many "old line American families" had a Black ancestor in the 1600's, or for that matter how many Black families today had an Irish ancestor after the Civil War (i.e., the intermarried couples at the Five Points section of lower Manhattan). Or, more sensitive perhaps, the number of white families today that within the last 145 years had a Black ancestor that was "light enough" to pass for white, and melded into the white society (I have been told by one Black American this is not as rare as one might think, based on personal experience in the family).
Getting back to my German brethren - Ashkenazi Jews are supposedly called Ashkenazi due to where they were allowed to settle (on the banks of some river in Germany), when they arrived, not that long after the Romans destroyed the Second Temple. Plus, we all know that Yiddish is just a 15th century version of German. So, while these facts prove nothing, it does make me believe that since all of Germany was not Christianized until as late as 1300, there was a long time that Jews lived in Germany, and marrying a shiksa did not start in the U.S.
Also, it always seemed odd, that the Nazis specified that when looking over the ancestry of potential SS Officers, they could not have a Jewish ancestor for the last 200 years. Well, with good church records that went back prior to 200 years, why was 200 years the cut-off? Is someone keeping a secret? Like you said, no substantiated proof. Nor, will there be any, in my opinion, since as I have implied, the truth could be offensive to nice Germans. Why open up a can of worms? No reason to.
Oh, you are likely aware that it has been estimated that 300,000 Jewish infants were given over to Christian (Catholic) neighbors just before the SS came to cart Jews away (you know the three million Polish religious Jews seemed to always have an infant, based on their high birthrate). So, these infants were raised as good Catholic Poles (the Jewish family was gone, never to return). So, do the math. What percentage of Poles today have a Jewish ancestor? A quick estimate gives me possibly 6%. And, you know that the percentage increases geometrically, not arithmetically. Tune in tomorrow to see where Poland is on the national scene?
Yes, I have no proof, and I will not ask you to "trust me" on my suppositions.
