@salima,
Again, let me first express appreciation for the input and energy. It appears, jeepers, that the bulk of what you are trying to present, or the element of whatever it may be as an overall 'picture,' if you will, that you have so far put forth is comitting what I call the '
wanting-to-have-the-cake-and-eat-it-too' fallacy. Of course I am fully willing to work on this with you, and go over it so as to more fully explain what I mean, and why I say that,
but FIRST, I need to ask one thing of you.
I'd like you to answer my one question first. Are you, or are you not, actually willing to go through the '
all that it takes' to look at this, and to do so most carefully and logically? (rather than give up mid-stream with a '
you go back to your lab, and I'll go back to my meditation chair'-like line?) Please let me know your stance.
Salima, meri priya baheen, I'm at a bit of a loss just how to proceed, actually. One line of thought in your most recent post, draws this out; please follow through this with me, to check it out. In saying the following:
[indent]
" . . . don't say 'it's just not there'. It would be more correct to say that science has not been able to discover it yet, and if it is there they surely some day will do so."[/indent]
two positions can be seen. The clause '
it would be more correct to say . . . ' linguistically demands the postion that a 'correct matter' is known, and therefore adjustment of another position is necessary. However, in the clause, '
if it is there . . . ' is linguistically identifying that there is a possibility of something, but that it is known as being a 'correct matter' (as in being known to be so) yet.
I do think I know where you are coming from though...I think...and so my dilemma. Do I start my explanation at the very bottom, and work upward covering all points, so as to give a full background so that when I make a statement it will not appear to be coming out of the blue...out of nowhere? Or, will you allow me a certain degree of trust to make some general summary statements from time to time, so as to avoid the details (as LWSleeth had seemly accused me of being overly fond of--
though detail is VERY important)? I'm interested in doing this right, and it should require some degree of detail, but, how much? Please get back with me on this point firstly, if you don't mind; I'd truly appreciate it.
Awaiting that response, however, let me point out that there is a difference between the idea of telepathy (as I know of it, at least) and hearing internal voices. We would surely not be very off target at all to say that it is most thinkable that up to some 95% percent of every human being who has lived in the past 10, 000 years (at least), and those living today too, have '
heard' and do '
hear' a voice in their head--most usually simulated as their own.
While driving, I may '
hear' that voice say '
Hurry and make your turn, you silly, slow poke driver...' [
hey, never claimed to be perfect]. The thing is, this activity is not something that other structures are unaware of; the cognitive recognition is that it belongs to this organism.
As another example, most people will '
hear' voices in their heads when they dream too. . . with varying degrees of being able to recall 'voice possession' if disassociated from visual context. And, right on the very beginning of going into stage one sleep, in the period called
sleep onset, many will, from time to time (some more than others...and brain build difference and daily experience intensity is often evidenced for such) experience
hypnagogic hallucinations.
Around that point there may be
hypnic jerks (as muscle tone relaxes but motor activity persists for a number of seconds, and so on), feelings of kind of waving, like on a boat, or sinking downward. Here, we will find that 'voices' or 'sounds' can be 'heard' which the yet stimulated association cortical areas and loops will acknowledge as external, yet, which are not (this has been shown, and is firm knowledge).
But actually hearing an externally sourced voice, is to hear an externally sourced sound, right? In the vacumm of space, sound waves do not travel because there is no bouncing of molecules to carry the sound...so, of couse, our ears would not pick up almost no, if any sound at all, voice or not. For that reason too, we can understand that to 'hear' a voice, without there being an actual sound wave hitting our ears (assuming too, they function properly and have no cuts in the links and processing structures) has to be an internal event--regardless.
Another point is that just like vision, the 'pieces' of language are spread around in a number of structures. . . it's not one single thing that is making this 'talking' event that we get in self-talk, even.
Two points which you have brought up, salima, in your most recent post, I'll just touch on, but wait for your thoughts on how much detail you'd like before going into that.
[indent]There is the
pre-synaptic area (axon terminal) and the
post-synaptic area (a number of varieties, but mostly dendritic) with a synaptic cleft inbetween them of some 20~50 nanometers. This cleft, however, is filled with a 'matrix' of extracellular protein basically to help adherence. Inside the pre-synaptic terminal 'button' (or 'element') there are, among some other things, these little sacs called
synaptic vesicles which are filled with
nerotransmitters of a number of types and
secretory granules carrying soluble proteins (
dense-core visicles).
Depending on a number of factors (espcially inhibitory activity) an action potential will cause the vesicles to merge into the wall of the cell's membrane, and release the neurotransmitters. The post-synaptic cell will have
recepters, like locks for certain keys, which the correct, or at least correctly-looking (as LSD mimics serotonin (5-HT1,2) neurotransmitter will fit into, causing reactions in that post-synaptic cell which may, or may not cause an action potential. The neurotransmitters are re-uptaken (
re-uptake).
Neuromodulators are of a slightly different class, and go beyond just the synaptic area.
That is point one 'your post, lines1-3 of second paragraph), and point two (lines 4, 5 of [basically] 4th paragraph) is that the surgeon will simply probe all around the area, we couldn't say that any intention has crossed over. The excitation of a cortical area will be the same as a set of (or sometimes a single neuron possibly as some recent research as suggested) neurons firing in a certain loop (or map) so as to cause a certian number of action potentials which in turn will produce other events...such as an actual movement.
Again, the electricity does not usually cross over execpt at what are called '
gap-junctions' but then that exchange of event will eventually go to chemical events anyway. Because a lot of people (as I have mentioned before) kind of want things right here, right now, many, I feel (not pointing to anyone here, on purpose) don't take the time to consider all that has to really be considered to start to get a hold on the big picture. Brain (as an uncountable noun, thus opposed to the term, 'THE brain') is alive and active, and does what it does. The feeling to do something (urge) the intention to do something (stronger urge) and the actual act (brain caused event) are all brain events. [/indent]
Time is up...(I'll proof-read later, sorry....KJ)