@Debra Law,
Quote:If you say so... AND Sarah Palin can't have quit her job because resigning isn't quitting, it is an aspect of not quitting, ALSO. You betcha! With incoherency becoming the norm, the next descriptivist manual of the English Language ought to be a doozy.
"manuals" are for prescription, Debra. They usually consist of one skinny little book or one skinny little chapter in some book. They repeat the same tired old pieces of folklore that have been repeated for hundreds of years.
Go down to your local library, Debra, and compare a prescriptive manual with, say,
The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language or
Longman Grammar of Spoken and Written English.
Read just a few pages and you'll quickly notice that it's like comparing
Ican on Constitutional Law to that of any top notch legal scholar.
In your example above, you're confusing the nuances inherent in vocabulary, which I'm sure you'd agree exist, with the mechanical structures of language.
Let's stick with your terminology and call the past perfect a tense. That still doesn't make your argument work, for we mix "tenses" all the time.
For reporting speech as indirect, we shift tenses, it's called backshifting, even though there is no time shift, hence no tense shift in the sense you are envisioning 'tense'. In this case the tenses aren't being matched in your sense, we make the shift back to signal that it's indirect speech. Let's look at an example.
A: I'm going to New York on the weekend.
B: [to C] What did A say, C?
C: She said she
is going to New York this weekend.
Does
is match
said, Debra? No, it doesn't. Could we have "tenses" that match, yes, but only in form.
C: She said she
was going to New York this weekend.
Here the match isn't the past tense, in the sense,
I
was in the gym.
where 'was' denotes a finished state of 'thereness'. The 'was' of 'was going' is only a past tense FORM, which we use as a signal to let others know we are not directly quoting another speaker/writer.
Of course you're right that many times "tenses" do match but that is for semantic reasons, not syntactic ones. The reason there is no Concord of Tenses/Sequence of Tenses in English, despite what prescriptivists have long said, is that language has to be able to describe all potential situations and that wouldn't be possible if we had to follow these artificial strictures.
[Ebrown, take note of yet another artificial rule as opposed to a natural one.]
1. If she had taken that poison she would be dead now.
In 1. do the tenses have to match, Debra?
1a. ?? If she had taken that poison she would have been dead now. ??