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California Voters Approve Gay-Marriage Ban

 
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Aug, 2010 08:33 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
I don't understand the problem. I would if you had a general objection against courts looking at legislative records at all. Some justices, most prominently Scalia, make a point of ignoring it and focusing on the language of a law alone. (I think you once said you sympathize with this particular part of his approach.)

I do have sympathy with Scalia's approach to legislative histories -- I just wish he would be more consistent in his approach.

Thomas wrote:
But to a judge who does pay attention to the legislative record behind a law, what difference does it make who the legislator is? Why pay attention to the legislative record when the law-giver is a parliament voting on a bill, but not when it's an electorate voting on a citizen's initiative?

Because 7,001,084 people voted "yes" on Proposition 8. It's simply impossible to determine what motivated them to vote. Some of them may have voted to "preserve the sanctity of marriage" or "strengthen the family structure." And some of them may have voted "yes" because they hate homos. We can't know what motivated all 7,001,084 voters, and I don't know how the court could do it either.

In contrast, there are 120 members of the California legislature. The legislature holds committee hearings on bills and maintains a record of its proceedings. It's possible, then, to discern the legislative intent behind the passage of a bill in the legislature to a much greater degree than the intent behind a citizen initiative.

I will, however, provide this caveat: there's mention in the opinion about the initiative's "official proponents" (p. 4 of the opinion). I'm not sure if that designation has any legal significance under California law. I still haven't gone through the entire opinion, so I'm not looking to do more work on this matter. It's possible, though, that the "official proponents" are responsible for explaining the "legislative intent" of an initiative. If that's the case, that will certainly affect my opinion.

As I've mentioned, my thoughts on this are evolving as I learn more about the case. In the meantime, for everyone who thinks that Judge Walker made it difficult for the appellate court to strike down his ruling by focusing so much on the facts, a contrary opinion.
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Aug, 2010 08:54 am
@joefromchicago,
Quote:
It's simply impossible to determine what motivated them to vote. Some of them may have voted to "preserve the sanctity of marriage" or "strengthen the family structure." And some of them may have voted "yes" because they hate homos.


Those are both the same reason - one just is afraid to reveal its' true motivations, and hides behind code-word bullshit.

Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Aug, 2010 11:07 am
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
But to a judge who does pay attention to the legislative record behind a law, what difference does it make who the legislator is? Why pay attention to the legislative record when the law-giver is a parliament voting on a bill, but not when it's an electorate voting on a citizen's initiative?

Because 7,001,084 people voted "yes" on Proposition 8. It's simply impossible to determine what motivated them to vote. Some of them may have voted to "preserve the sanctity of marriage" or "strengthen the family structure." And some of them may have voted "yes" because they hate homos. We can't know what motivated all 7,001,084 voters, and I don't know how the court could do it either.

Discerning the intent of Congress has exactly the same problem. Turning over the mike to my sometimes-guru Scalia:

Dissenting in the case of Edwards v. Aguillard, justice Scalia wrote:
In the present case, for example, a particular legislator need not have voted for the Act either because he wanted to foster religion or because he wanted to improve education. He may have thought the bill would provide jobs for his district, or may have wanted to make amends with a faction of his party he had alienated on another vote, or he may have been a close friend of the bill's sponsor, or he may have been repaying a favor he owed the majority leader, or he may have hoped the Governor would appreciate his vote and make a fund-raising appearance for him, or he may have been pressured to vote for a bill he disliked by a wealthy contributor or by a flood of constituent mail, or he may have been seeking favorable publicity, or he may have been reluctant to hurt the feelings of a loyal staff member who worked on the bill, or he may have been settling an old score with a legislator who opposed the bill, or he may have been mad at his wife, who opposed the bill, or he may have been intoxicated and utterly unmotivated when the vote was called, or he may have accidentally voted "yes" instead of "no," or, of course, he may have had (and very likely did have) a combination of some of the above and many other motivations. To look for the sole purpose of even a single legislator is probably to look for something that does not exist.

Source

joefromchicago wrote:
As I've mentioned, my thoughts on this are evolving as I learn more about the case. In the meantime, for everyone who thinks that Judge Walker made it difficult for the appellate court to strike down his ruling by focusing so much on the facts, a contrary opinion.

My thoughts on it are evolving as well. Thanks for helping them evolve with your intelligently designed contributions!
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Aug, 2010 11:40 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
Discerning the intent of Congress has exactly the same problem. Turning over the mike to my sometimes-guru Scalia:

Like I said, I wish Scalia were consistent in his skepticism. I think, though, that his skepticism of legislative intent with regard to ordinary legislation contradicts his embrace of original intent with regard to the constitution. In any event, it would still be easier to discern legislative intent when dealing with 120 legislators than with seven million voters.
DrewDad
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Aug, 2010 12:06 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Some of them may have voted to "preserve the sanctity of marriage" or "strengthen the family structure."

Neither of which the government should be involved in.
0 Replies
 
OCCOM BILL
 
  3  
Reply Fri 6 Aug, 2010 12:23 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
hawkeye10 wrote:
What is your argument that citizens dont have the right to define marriage as a hetero institution?

It's identical to my argument why citizens don't have the right to define marriage as a same-race institution.
Precisely right. After the court's decision in Lawrence v. Texas; I do not see how the court can reasonably distinguish Loving v. Virginia from the case at bar. I think it's just a matter of time, and Loving will be recognized as controlling law. Pity Mrs. Loving won't be around to witness it.
0 Replies
 
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 01:40 am
@parados,
parados wrote:

Equal protection is in the constitution Brandon.

A majority can't vote to violate the constitution. They can vote to change the constitution but that takes more than a simple majority.

This law, fairly passed by a majority of the electorate, applies identically to all people. You have now taken away my right to vote, and I am therefore justified in doing virtually anything, including armed insurrection. If the loss of the right to vote doesn't justify that, what would? I can get a large majority of the electorate to vote my way, and one or a small handful of your cronies can neutralize the election results. This is absolutely unacceptable.
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 01:42 am
@DrewDad,
DrewDad wrote:

Can I get together with a bunch of people and vote away your right to express your political views?

No?

No, because the Constitution actually does mention the right to vote and to freedom of speech. Show me where the Constitution guarantees the right to gay marriage. When you take away our fairly passed laws, you always do so based on elastic clauses and claim things are in the Constitution that aren't. This is the ultimate violation of the social contract.
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 01:47 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:

Brandon wrote:
Funny, I thought the rule was one man (or woman) one vote.

No, that's only half of the rule. Granted, it's true that all government action must be legitimized by votes. But that doesn't mean people can vote for anything they want, and what the majority wants will be guaranteed to be legitimate. In particular, as a long-standing Supreme Court precedent puts it, "fundamental rights may not be submitted to a vote; they depend on the outcome of no election." And marriage is a fundamental right, according to another well-established Supreme Court precedent.

Baloney. Only rights guaranteed in the Contitution may not be submitted to a vote (except in amending the Constitution). Gay marriage isn't mentioned as a protected right. In fact, marriage isn't mentioned in the Constitution at all. The liberals now neutralize laws they don't like based on false claims of contradicting the Constitution.
RexRed
 
  2  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 06:08 am
@Brandon9000,
Marriage is mentioned only a few times in the bible and an actual marriage ceremony is "never once" written in any detail, zero, zilch... Apparently how marriage is performed is not very important to God.. But, one would think the bible contained it as part of its own constitution. Christians act as if it is all through the bible...

The rights for blacks and women are not in the constitution either so are you saying they deserve no equal protection under the law based upon that premise alone?
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  3  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 08:29 am
@Brandon9000,
Brandon9000 wrote:
Baloney. Only rights guaranteed in the Contitution may not be submitted to a vote (except in amending the Constitution).

As usual, you are construing the enumeration of certain rights in the constitution to deny and disparage others. That's a direct violation of the Ninth Amendment.
0 Replies
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 08:37 am
@Brandon9000,
Brandon9000 wrote:

DrewDad wrote:

Can I get together with a bunch of people and vote away your right to express your political views?

No?

No, because the Constitution actually does mention the right to vote and to freedom of speech. Show me where the Constitution guarantees the right to gay marriage.


The right to pursue happiness. It is the POINT of our freedoms... and all people deserve it.

I do love how you come here and whine when court cases don't go your way, and bitch about how Liberals 'just get judges to change things for them...' And you are partially right. A large part of the Liberal tradition has been pushing back the boundaries of societies' ignorance and bigotry, creating a better life for us all, by legally challenging decisions on the basis of equality.

At the end of the day, this decision doesn't affect you or anyone you know or could know in a negative way - at all. You just have your panties in a bunch because, what exactly?

Cycloptichorn
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 08:38 am
@Brandon9000,
Brandon9000 wrote:

parados wrote:

Equal protection is in the constitution Brandon.

A majority can't vote to violate the constitution. They can vote to change the constitution but that takes more than a simple majority.

This law, fairly passed by a majority of the electorate, applies identically to all people. You have now taken away my right to vote, and I am therefore justified in doing virtually anything, including armed insurrection. If the loss of the right to vote doesn't justify that, what would? I can get a large majority of the electorate to vote my way, and one or a small handful of your cronies can neutralize the election results. This is absolutely unacceptable.


Oh, really? Show me where in the US Constitution it gives people the right to vote on ballot measures. Since you have such a huge stick up your ass about following the constitution closely, I expect you'll be able to do so rather quickly. Right?

Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  3  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 08:41 am
@Brandon9000,
Brandon9000 wrote:
[...]the Constitution actually does mention the right to vote[...]

Only in the limited contexts of race- and gender discrimination. But if the state of Florida revoked your right to vote tomorrow, which clause of the US constitution would it violate? I mean, violate under your narrow reading of constitutional rights?
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  2  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 08:56 am
@Brandon9000,
Brandon9000 wrote:


This law, fairly passed by a majority of the electorate, applies identically to all people.
No, it doesn't. The court said so.

You are free to slobber all over yourself all you want but the constitution gives courts the power to decide not Brandon when it comes to issues related to the constitution.
RexRed
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 09:04 am
I remember the courts once decided upon Bush over Gore against the general vote of the entire country...
0 Replies
 
failures art
 
  2  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 10:40 am
@parados,
parados wrote:

Brandon9000 wrote:


This law, fairly passed by a majority of the electorate, applies identically to all people.
No, it doesn't. The court said so.

You are free to slobber all over yourself all you want but the constitution gives courts the power to decide not Brandon when it comes to issues related to the constitution.

What does "fairly passed" mean? These things aren't supposed to be voted on, so how can it be fairly passed? We aren't supposed to voted on civil liberties, otherwise we'd institutionalize civil inequity. It's getting rather old hat to whine about a referendum being overturned, when it should have never been put to vote in the first place.

A
R
T
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 10:45 am
@failures art,
failures art, You are spot on! We the people cannot vote to discriminate against any group of people; that's what our constitution says. It doesn't belong on any ballot for a vote; those are rights that cannot be taken away by a vote by the majority.

Some people will never understand what our constitution stands for.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  2  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 11:15 am
@Cycloptichorn,
Cycloptichorn wrote:
The right to pursue happiness.

... is in the Declaration of Independence, but nowhere in the US constitution. Sorry. Although I agree with your conclusion, this particular constitutional argument for it doesn't work.
Thomas
 
  5  
Reply Sat 7 Aug, 2010 11:22 am
@failures art,
failures art wrote:
What does "fairly passed" mean?

As I understand Brandon, it merely means that the voting procedure wasn't corrupted by force or fraud. If two wolves and one sheep democratically vote on what to have for dinner, that's fair enough to him as long as nobody packs the ballot. Likewise when twenty million straights and two million gays vote on who can marry whom.
 

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