@MontereyJack,
Logic IS the basis of the mind, it is
necessary for the formation of
objects, hence logic is
objectively true.
To clarify, there is no physical quantity in this case, meaning neurology has no basis in this case, the mind is a priori, the mind is a construct of axioms, these axioms are the elementary basis for systematics (formal) and inference rules that define deductive systems.
Quote:Traditional Aristotlean two-valued logic is completely useless for many real-world decisions
I am NOT arguing normative (ethics), I am arguing the truth
reliability of logic, specifically binary logic.
Such ethical arguements are of epistemical properties.
From
your interpretation it appears that there OUGHT TO be "many real-world decisions" (however this is defined), being that you have assumed there is in fact an objective, this arguementation has been refuted by Hume's law/guilotine.
Let us assume that your arguement is valid, an example of an indeterminate being 'over there', how is this solution logical?
If 'over there' is semantically analysed, it WILL be subjected to bivalence, therefore these 'extrapolated values' are
ultimately derived to truth values.
However, this arguement may be acknowledged
empirically, such as 'both the momentum and energy of the electron is uncertian', in fact this is relative to why I am ignostic, theism and atheism are uncertain.
Inflation theorems suggest that the universe has antecedent conditions, therefore naturalism is finite, or
metaphysically, it would be interpreted that nomology is contingent, furthermore theist Gods have not been cognitively defined (i.e. omnibenevolent).
I would argue that DEISM is most evident, simply being a synonym belief for the unmoved mover.
Quote:everything is not necessarily either ture or false
Why is bivalence law invalid, are they not
post complete systems?
Do you have examples, can you elaborate these conditions?
Quote:and many decisions can only be probabilistic
If you are infering frequencies, such as the
applications of probability, this satisfies informal conditions, meaning the deduction of "non classical logic" is in fact
inductive.
Quote:the so-called "fuzzy" logic is all you can employ
Is fuzzy logic true or false?
This dichotomy is a consistent basis for all phenomena, that being classical logic.
Quote:And further logic is only as good as the initial postulates you reason from.
Postulates are NOT axioms, however it may be a synonym for non logical axioms, these are not
tautologies.
Quote:Craig, from the little I could stomach, starts with a number of unverifiable and indeed unlikely initial premises, which he seems to treat as inherently true, a dubious proposition.
Do you have examples?
The kalam cosmological arguement infers 'everything that begins to exist has a cause', this may be derrived to axiom of causality.
The ontological arguement varies in premise there are many, which also includes Godel, being responsible for formulating the incompleteness theorems.
When you stated "verifiable", are you referring verificationalism?
Epistemically, this concept is self refuting.
Quote:In the computer biz that's known as GIGO--Garbage in, Garbage out.
This arguement is syntactical.
You must define "garbage", and argue why is it logically possible.