2
   

may/might

 
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Sun 2 Mar, 2008 02:29 pm
That seems fine to me, YL, perfectly.

Wondering: does this disagreement (in foregoing many posts) have anything to do with the different meanings of "may", i.e. 1. seeking permission and 2. statement of choice, possibility, likelihood?
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Sun 2 Mar, 2008 03:02 pm
Hi Mc Tag

My original question is "Does might imply less possibilty than may"?

Somehow the question led to whether might is the past tense of may.

I may go. (more likelihood of my going)
I might go. (less likelihood of my going)

My friend waited and waited, but I didn't turn up. Later, he was angry and phoned me asking why I did not come.

I told him that I said that I might be going and that he shouldn't be angry because I did not turn up.

All the verbs are in the past tense. However, 'might' in the sentence also has the implication that there is little likelihood of my going to meet my friend.

I think that complicates the usage.

What do you think?
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Sun 2 Mar, 2008 04:07 pm
In my opinion, "may" and "might" are equivalent. Neither indicates more likelihood than the other.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Sun 2 Mar, 2008 06:30 pm
Yoong Liat wrote:
May I come in?" (may is present tense)

He asked if he might come in. (might is past tense, so is asked)

In reported speech, the present tense (may) is changed to the past tense (might)

IMO, the above sentence is an example of the uage of 'might' as past tense.


I don't know how many times I've explained it, YL. The backshifting that occurs for Reported Speech is not an actual shift in tense. The past tense FORM only, not its meaning as a past tense verb, is used to mark the speech as reported; this is done so the listener knows that it's not a direct quote.

============
Scenario 1:
Barb: [it's 1PM now] I'm going to go to the movies tonight.

Alice: John, what did Barb say?

John: She said that she was going to go to the movies tonight.

+++++++++++++++++++


Scenario 2:

Barb: [it's 1PM now] I'm going to go to the movies tonight. Oh geeze, I just remembered, I can't, I have to babysit.

Alice: John, what did Barb say?

John: She said that she WAS going to go to the movies tonight but that she can't/couldn't. She has to babysit.
==========

Has Barb gone to the movies? No, she hasn't.

In scenario 1, the speaker backshifts, ie. uses 'was' to mark this as reported speech.

Can 'was going to' describe an actual past tense/past time situation. No, it most definitely can not.

In its usual use, "was going to + verb" describes a situation where the speaker has changed their mind, changing a plan. In scenario 2, we have an example of 'was going to' in its normal use illustrating the speaker's change of plans.

In scenario 1, that same usual meaning is absent. Alice wouldn't think for a second that Barb had changed her mind because that usual meaning is simply not there, that meaning has been stripped and replaced as a marker of reported speech. Alice understands that the use of 'was going to' only marks the speech as reported.

==============

Contrex: I may try to think this through.

YL: What did Contrex say, JTT?

JTT: He said he may/might try to think this through but given the paucity from him so far, that probably won't happen.

[Contrex hears of this so he applies himself rigorously to this task, in order to prove JTT wrong and he actually gives it some thought. Later he describes his "past tense", finished efforts]

Contrex: I spent 20 minutes pondering this while I was in the shower. I might think this through*.
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 10:22 am
Hi JTT

might - past tense of may: I thought I might find him here.

(Times-Chambers Learners'Dictionary)

Is this dictionary also wrong?
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 10:30 am
The gathering storm.
Why shouldn't YL be aggressive? Everyone else around here is.
Smile
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 11:41 am
McTag wrote:
The gathering storm.
Why shouldn't YL be aggressive? Everyone else around here is.
Smile


Hi Mc Tag

I'm not being aggressive. If you tell me what is stated in English usage and grammar books is wrong, I can agreed to that. However, if you say that my dictionary has made a mistake, I find it difficult to accept.

Thanks for the encouragement, Mc Tag.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 12:21 pm
Yoong Liat wrote:
Hi JTT

might - past tense of may: I thought I might find him here.

(Times-Chambers Learners'Dictionary)

Is this dictionary also wrong?


As regards ascribing tense to these two modals, yes, they are completely wrong. Now if they had said,

might - HISTORICAL past tense of may

they would have been right.

You keep offering reported speech examples as proof, YL. In fact that't the only proof that is ever offered. Why? Because that's the only way that modals backshift for each other, but we know that reported speech is not an indication of a real past tense/past time; it is a marker of reported speech only.

Look at the following examples, no, stuy the following examples.

Speaker: I think that I might find him there.

Speaker: I thought I might find him here but he isn't here.

The "I thought" part is finished. The opinion as to how certain the speaker is, is never a finished thing. "he" was either there or he wasn't.

Speaker: I think that I may find him there.

Speaker: I thought I may find him here but he isn't here.

Speaker: I should find him there.

Speaker: I thought I should/would find him here but he isn't here.

Is 'should or would' the past tense of 'should'?

Speaker: I think that I'm going to find him there.

Speaker: I thought I would find him here but he isn't here.

Is 'would' now the past tense of "be going to"?

Speaker: I think that I'm going to find him there.

Speaker: I really thought, I'm going to find him here but he isn't here.

Is "I'm going to" now the past tense of "I'm going to"?
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 12:26 pm
You're welcome, YL. I think your English is coming along fine.

Sometimes when you ask a question, you get more than you bargained for. But that's fine too I think.
It must be interesting for an EFL learner to see native speakers disagreeing about their own language.
It shows, among other things I suppose, that the language had developed differently in different places.
And also, that it's constantly changing.

Thanks for your many interesting questions.

Smile
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 12:38 pm
Hi JTT

I produce examples from dictionaries to prove my point. They are authoritative sources. On the other hand, you keep explaining to me and Contrex why we are wrong.

If you could quote an English authority which says that 'might' is not the present tense of 'may', I would not have spend to much time digging for the correct information.

You told me that I cannot trust grammar and English usage books, but what the writers say are also what dictionaries say because I often refer to dictionaries, especially the example sentences.

I think what you're saying is based on descriptive English, while I'm saying is based on prescriptive English.
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 12:46 pm
Thanks, Mc Tag, for your constant encouragement.

Could you please take a look at my latest post and see whether what I'm saying makes sense? I need native speakers like you to improve my English.

I believe in quoting authoritative sources to back up my point/s.

I'm aware there are native speakers who favour descriptive English and think little about prexcriptive English.

Best wishes.
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 12:55 pm
Yoong Liat wrote:
Hi JTT

I produce examples from dictionaries to prove my point. They are authoritative sources. On the other hand, you keep explaining to me and Contrex why we are wrong.

If you had quoted an English authority which says that 'might' is not the past tense of 'may', I would not have to spend so much time digging for the correct information.

You told me that I cannot trust grammar and English usage books, but what the writers say are also what dictionaries say because I often refer to dictionaries, especially the example sentences.

I think what you're saying is based on descriptive English, while what I'm saying is based on prescriptive English.


PS I've changed 'present' to 'past' and made some amendments. Therefore, this supersedes the one I posted earlier.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 01:42 pm
Yoong Liat wrote:
Hi JTT

I produce examples from dictionaries to prove my point. They are authoritative sources. On the other hand, you keep explaining to me and Contrex why we are wrong.

And notice that Contrex does not explain anything and yet you keep believing this myth.

I trust that your level of English is such that you can see that no one can provide any examples of might as the past tense of may, except for reported speech which has errantly been used as examples of past tense when they are NOT.

When you use a historical past tense as the past tense of a historical present tense, you get ungrammatical examples.

============

A: I can jump 6 feet.

[A jumps]

A: *I could jump 6 feet.*

=====

B: I shall go to London.

[B goes to London]

B: *I should go to London.*

==============

C: I will get up on the table.

[C gets up on the table]

C: *I would get up on the table.*

==================

D: I may buy a TV.

[D buys a TV]

D: *I might buy a TV.*

=====================

{Asterisks (*...*) indicate ungrammatical for the situation}



If you could quote an English authority which says that 'might' is not the present tense of 'may', I would not have spend to much time digging for the correct information.

I've given you the correct information, YL. The test is, "Can you create examples that prove the rule has veracity?" When you see that you cannot, it should give a thinking person, at the least, pause.

Dictionaries can and do make mistakes. It wasn't until 1998 that OED declared the split infinitive rule bogus. Why should it have taken these "authorities" so long?


You told me that I cannot trust grammar and English usage books, but what the writers say are also what dictionaries say because I often refer to dictionaries, especially the example sentences.

You can't trust prescriptive grammar books and usage manuals are pretty much that.

I think what you're saying is based on descriptive English, while I'm saying is based on prescriptive English.

YL, prescriptive English does not describe how language actually works. Prescriptive English is simply a group of no-nothings telling you nothing.

This is prescriptive English in a nutshell.

Quote:


Prescriptive rules are useless without the much more fundamental rules that create the sentences to begin with. These rules are never mentioned in style manuals or school grammars because the authors correctly assume that anyone capable of reading the manuals must already have the rules. No one, not even a valley girl, has to be told not to say [Apples the eat boy] or [Who did you meet John and?] or the vast, vast majority of the trillions of mathematically possible combinations of words.

So when a scientist considers all the high-tech mental machinery needed to arrange words into ordinary sentences, prescriptive rules are, at best, inconsequential little decorations.

The very fact that they have to be drilled shows that they are alien to the natural workings of the language system. One can choose to obsess over prescriptive rules, but they have no more to do with human language than the criteria for judging cats at a cat show have to do with mammalian biology.

http://pinker.wjh.harvard.edu/articles/media/1994_01_24_thenewrepublic.html



And the prescriptivists themselves.

Quote:

The legislators of "correct English," in fact, are an informal network of copy-editors, dictionary usage panelists, style manual writers, English teachers, essayists, and pundits. Their authority, they claim, comes from their dedication to implementing standards that have served the language well in the past, especially in the prose of its finest writers, and that maximize its clarity, logic, consistency, elegance, precision, stability, and expressive range. William Safire, who writes the weekly column "On Language" for the [New York Times Magazine], calls himself a "language maven," from the Yiddish word meaning expert, and this gives us a convenient label for the entire group.

To whom I say: Maven, shmaven! [Kibbitzers] and [nudniks] is more like it. For here are the remarkable facts. Most of the prescriptive rules of the language mavens make no sense on any level. They are bits of folklore that originated for screwball reasons several hundred years ago and have perpetuated themselves ever since. For as long as they have existed, speakers have flouted them, spawning identical plaints about the imminent decline of the language century after century. All the best writers in English have been among the flagrant flouters. The rules conform neither to logic nor tradition, and if they were ever followed they would force writers into fuzzy, clumsy, wordy, ambiguous, incomprehensible prose, in which certain thoughts are not expressible at all. Indeed, most of the "ignorant errors" these rules are supposed to correct display an elegant logic and an acute sensitivity to the grammatical texture of the language, to which the mavens are oblivious.

http://pinker.wjh.harvard.edu/articles/media/1994_01_24_thenewrepublic.html





Read the whole article. It'll be a real eye opener for you. Then you can get rid of all those usage manuals that are taking up valuable space on your bookshelves.

Why haven't you asked yourself, YL?

Why hasn't Contrex, why haven't the native speakers been rushing to fill these pages with examples? When a rule says you can do such and such then you'd expect to see some such and such's.
0 Replies
 
contrex
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 01:47 pm
more nonsense from JTT. I suspect you have "issues", or Assbergers maybe?
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 02:33 pm
Hi JTT

With due respect to you, I would say I'm able to discuss with native speakers because I make use of grammar and English usage books. I've read them and found that they say the same things although sometimes they differ in a few instances. However, for the most part, what one book says echoes what the other books say and it also provides new topics not covered by the other books. If you advise me to dixcard the Englsh books, then it is like telling me to throw away my dictionaries.

Even the most educated have to refer to dictionaries every now and then. Hence, I think I cannot accept your advice.

Best wishes.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 02:38 pm
contrex wrote:
more nonsense from JTT. I suspect you have "issues", or Assbergers maybe?


The only issue here, Contrex, is that you can't support your contention. Go back over the thread and count the times that you have offered anything that would support your mistaken belief.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 02:46 pm
Yoong Liat wrote:
Hi JTT

With due respect to you, I would say I'm able to discuss with native speakers because I make use of grammar and English usage books. I've read them and found that they say the same things although sometimes they differ in a few instances.

However, for the most part, what one book says echoes what the other books say and it also provides new topics not covered by the other books. If you advise me to discard the English books, then it is like telling me to throw away my dictionaries.

Even the most educated have to refer to dictionaries every now and then. Hence, I think I cannot accept your advice.

Best wishes.


Keep the dictionaries, YL and dump the prescriptive usage manuals and grammar books.

Of course you can communicate. Why? Because the prescriptions are only "inconsequential little decorations". They remain unused because they are "alien to the natural workings of the language system".

So it is with the modals. They don't get used in language in the manner described by Contrex or your dictionaries.

Good luck with your endeavors.
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 03:04 pm
Hi JTT

Why should I dump the English books when they give similar information found in dictionaries? Modern dictionaries come with example sentences. If you compare the sentences in the dictionaries with those found in English usage and grammar books, you will find the sentences are grammatically the same.

I suggest you refer to a good grammar or English usage book and see that what you have learned is found in the books.

Believe me because I often refer to both dictionaries and English books.

Best wishes.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 04:14 pm
Yoong Liat wrote:
Hi JTT

Why should I dump the English books when they give similar information found in dictionaries? Modern dictionaries come with example sentences. If you compare the sentences in the dictionaries with those found in English usage and grammar books, you will find the sentences are grammatically the same.

So the same mistakes are repeated in different publications. What is that supposed to prove, YL. Have you any idea how many places these prescriptions have been published?

I suggest you refer to a good grammar or English usage book and see that what you have learned is found in the books.

Believe me because I often refer to both dictionaries and English books.

Best wishes.


How can I believe you, YL, how could anyone believe you when you can't, when no one can, make a sentence that does what you say it does, examples that I've been asking for years? Guess what? None have been forthcoming.

Would you like to buy a bridge? Smile
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Mon 3 Mar, 2008 04:30 pm
I did one.
0 Replies
 
 

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