1
   

Proper and improper uses of the term "racism"

 
 
dlowan
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 05:02 am
vikorr wrote:
So is verbal racism always a bad thing?


Erm...prolly better than beating people to death, slavery and concentration camps and such.
0 Replies
 
hawkeye10
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 05:38 am
vikorr wrote:
So is verbal racism always a bad thing?


Because many people still consider the term negative (my race is better than your race) anything called verbal racism is likely to be poorly received. However, so is trying to converse with a black guy who is full of black pride without you verbally acknowledging his blackness. If the other person thinks very much in terms of race but you act like you don't he is not going to know what to make of you and he will not trust you. If you want to have a relationship with a racist you need to be racist too, at least a little bit.

So, my answer is that verbal racism is not always a bad thing, but that you can't call it racism yet. We don't have a word that more clearly defines non negative racism, it would be some verbal mess such as "acknowledging the unique racial qualities of the other" or "exhibiting race-centric thinking" What ever you want to call it, currently you have to do it sometimes because America is so hung up on race.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 04:23 pm
fishin wrote:
blatham wrote:
fishin said
Quote:
Ummmm.. No. The term racism contains the negative connotations because people used it for political gain and assigned it those negative connations - much the same way as has been done with "liberal" and "homophobic". Your need to attempt to limit the definition and usage of the word is the result of that.


What on earth are you talking about? Lincoln and other abolitionists used the term 'racism' for political gain? He/they assigned negative connotations to 'racism' that wouldn't have been there had he not wanted votes? Is that your claim?


They did?? Really? Have you got a quote where they used it?

According to the Online Etymology Dictionary the word was first coined in 1932. According to Merriam Webster the word was coined in 1933. Lincoln had been dead for some 60+ years by the early 1930s and the entire abolitionist movement had pretty well dwindled.

A search on The Collected Works of Abraham Lincoln shows no work, either written or in speech, where he ever used either "racist" or "racism".

So I have to ask, what is it that you are talking about?


Great resource. Thankyou. I no longer have an OED and miss it dearly.

I confess I'm surprised the formation is so recent. Though the notion or set of notions from which it springs, eg "inferior race" is used by Lincoln in the manner we'd expect.

But then, given the actual first use of 'racism'
Quote:
racism is first attested 1936 (from Fr. racisme, 1935), originally in the context of Nazi theories.
do you still wish to maintain that
Quote:
The term racism contains the negative connotations because people used it for political gain and assigned it those negative connations[/color] - much the same way as has been done with "liberal" and "homophobic".
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 04:35 pm
Foofie wrote:
blatham wrote:


Consider a situation where a mother dies giving birth to twins, one pretty and the other one ugly. The father remarries and the new wife takes a strong preference for the pretty child, and over a period of years gives her all the cake and makes the ugly one do all the chores.

The father, a dim bulb, finally grasps what has been going on and sets to correcting this historical imbalance and injustice. He discrimates between the two twins and begins giving the ugly child slightly more cake than the pretty one and he begins making the pretty one do more chores.

The pretty one cries..."This is reverse discrimination! It is a wrong, by definition. It must stop or you, dad, are being unfair, unjust and immoral."


We are hard wired by biology to prefer beauty over ugliness, since beauty reflects a symmetry that correlates with being healthier for reproducing. I read this; it's not my opinion.


True. But you miss the point.

Consider instead that one had blue eyes and one had brown eyes.

Or imagine a traffic cop at an accident scene where only one lane of traffic can move past the overturned truck. He has to allow, say, 20 cars from the south then 20 cars from the north. He has to discriminate one group from the other group. But imagine that he gets a phone call, his wife is leaving him, and being distracted he keeps allowing only cars from the south to move through for some minutes. Can that group of cars stacked up on the north side justifiably demand that the prior imbalance be compensated?

How is that different, if we are concerned primarily with justice, from AA?
0 Replies
 
dyslexia
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 04:42 pm
I've heard you say many times
That you're better than no one
And no one is better than you.
If you really believe that,
you know you have
nothing to win and nothing to lose.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 05:24 pm
blatham wrote:
But then, given the actual first use of 'racism'
Quote:
racism is first attested 1936 (from Fr. racisme, 1935), originally in the context of Nazi theories.
do you still wish to maintain that
Quote:
The term racism contains the negative connotations because people used it for political gain and assigned it those negative connations[/color] - much the same way as has been done with "liberal" and "homophobic".


I have no problem maintaining my earlier statement. It holds true.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 05:54 pm
fishin

I'll go back and pick up some other loose ends. By the way, even if you remain a dogmatic reactionary with a mother whose teeth are yellow, it's a pleasure to talk with you again.

Quote:
I have no problem admitting that I am not color-blind. It's my issue and up to me to deal with it and check my views and opinions in an attempt to weed that out of my thinking. Overtly racist actions aren't an issue but, like everyone else, I notice who is around me and at some times I am more concerned than other times. I can freely admit that when I get on a train and the car is full of black teens I don't have the same level of comfort as I do when it is full of white middle-aged men. There is no rationale reason for the discomfort - none of them have done anything to me. Is that not still racism?

Sure. And an example to the point...you're anxious that this racial/cultural group might be more likely to do bad stuff. And I'm not free of it either (though living in new york for a few years pretty much eviscerated this particular concern for me).

Quote:
blatham:
And that's the trick being used when you or someone else labels AA as 'racist'. It is a legal strategy and it is a PR/propaganda strategy. It's been effective. But it is morally incoherent.

fishin:
As opposed to the legal/political strategy of claiming that race based policies are "good"?? How is that morally coherent?


Because they are corrective of prior injustices. Race, by itself, is not the moral issue. Injustice is the moral issue. Look at the traffic cop analogy I used just above to foofie. The cop, to be just or fair, must procede to correct a prior injustice/unfairness by discriminating the northbound traffic from the southbound traffic and now favor one over the other. To not do so (on a theory that discrimination is always bad because it is discrimination) is to end up with a result that is injust.

Quote:
blatham
The ML King point, which Occam Bill seemed to be the only one to appreciate, was that such slipshod use of the term 'racism' must also apply to King, to his statements, policies and goals because they were inextricable from discriminations based on race.

To end up in a position where Strom Thurmond and ML King are both placed in the category of 'racist' is where you end up, fishin. That is both morally and intellectually incoherent.

fishin
I have no problem in saying that MLK was racist. Your problem is with your yes/no, black//white, good/bad thinking.


We are both doing yes/no, good/bad. We are just doing it differently. You've argued earlier that all instances of racial discrimination are bad, with variation in degree. I'm arguing that this focus is morally incoherent IF it leads to a policy or idea that racial discriminations ought not to be utilized merely because they are discriminatory BECAUSE prior injustices are removed from the equation and it is those injustices which present the moral dilemma. That's where the moral dilemma sits.

Quote:
MLK, I suspect was aware of his own racism. Your attempt to paint that as being the same as Thurmond is, in itself, intellectually dishonest.


I don't paint them the same. Use of the term "racist" to describe both of them paints them the same. If all racial discrimination is bad, then both men are guilty of something immoral or undesireable. I acknowledge your differentiation between shades of bad. But I've not said King was guilty of 'bad'. Your formulation has King as 'bad', as a racial discriminator.

Quote:
King's "ideal" was a color-blind society and in several of his writings and speeches mention AA programs (which he often referred to as "preferential treatment") as "necessary". I can find no reference to him ever stating that he saw them as "good".


Then why the hell did he find them "necessary"? Because he liked the symmetry of X whites = X blacks? Rather obviously, he found them 'necessary' as a means of bringing about a social 'good', that social good being justice and fairness and equality.

Quote:
I have no doubt that King recognized that AA programs were racist - he pretty much stated as much in his 1963 Newsweek article where he called for "discrimination in reverse" as a form of social justice. He made similar comments in several of his other writings as well.

Then why not use "discriminatory" rather than 'racist"? Surely it is a more appropriate term in this case.

Quote:
The difference therein, is that King saw AA as necessary to correct past injustices while Thurmond fought against AA while attempting to leave racist laws/polices in effect and ignoring the past injustices. Where is the intellectual honesty in saying that those are the same thing?


As I said, I definitely do not say they are the same thing. Use of the term "racist" as an adjective to describe them both does that job.


I've been thinking about this all this stuff over the last couple of days. Particularly, I've been musing about the legal and rhetorical moves from a contingent of lawyers and institutions on the right to eviscerate AA programs. I've been wondering why this tact or project was begun.

I think it is a bit difficult to pin down because there are two factors in the mix. The first is the racism such as Thurmond or Wallace represented where they detested blacks so much that they wanted them kept segregated from whites.

But the second factor was the legal ability of the federal government to legislate, say, integrated schools, and enforce such legislation. So the states rights argument becomes a tool for turning back such federal legislation on race.

And that gives some perspective on someone like Bollick (who had been Clarence Thomas' assistant and who shows no personal indications of being a racist such as Thurmond or Wallace) and the institutions he founded and operates within, which are all or almost all funded by that coterie of wealthy right wing families (Koch, Scaife, Coors, Bradley, etc).

Who and what these families have funded concentrate on several particular ends, and the main one is inhibiting the ability of elected government to be an active agent in community affairs. The idea, Norquist said, is to 'get government so small it can be drowned in a bathtub'.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 05:55 pm
fishin wrote:
blatham wrote:
But then, given the actual first use of 'racism'
Quote:
racism is first attested 1936 (from Fr. racisme, 1935), originally in the context of Nazi theories.
do you still wish to maintain that
Quote:
The term racism contains the negative connotations because people used it for political gain and assigned it those negative connations[/color] - much the same way as has been done with "liberal" and "homophobic".


I have no problem maintaining my earlier statement. It holds true.


Well, perhaps not so much of a pleasure.
0 Replies
 
hawkeye10
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 06:05 pm
blatham wrote:
Or imagine a traffic cop at an accident scene where only one lane of traffic can move past the overturned truck. He has to allow, say, 20 cars from the south then 20 cars from the north. He has to discriminate one group from the other group. But imagine that he gets a phone call, his wife is leaving him, and being distracted he keeps allowing only cars from the south to move through for some minutes. Can that group of cars stacked up on the north side justifiably demand that the prior imbalance be compensated?

How is that different, if we are concerned primarily with justice, from AA?


Inaliable rights trumps justice, you can't dump "all men are created equal" simply because our ancestors did not follow it. Not being responsible for the sins of the father also runs deep in American justice, so you are wrong on that count as well.
0 Replies
 
hawkeye10
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 06:35 pm
MLK is not here to ask, but if he were I have not doubt but that he would say that he was the product of his birth. Being a part of a racist society could not help but to make him a least a bit racist as well. His life work was to allow for his kids grand kids to be better than him, to allow them to represent and be birthed in a society that was not racist.

A person who comes from a spiritual background knows that we come from a seed of which we had no choice, and to disown what is passed down through that seed is to disown a part of ourselves. MLK was the kind of man who would take ownership of who and what he was, would not reject those parts of himself that he did not like. He would not deny his racism.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 07:10 pm
blatham wrote:
fishin wrote:
blatham wrote:
But then, given the actual first use of 'racism'
Quote:
racism is first attested 1936 (from Fr. racisme, 1935), originally in the context of Nazi theories.
do you still wish to maintain that
Quote:
The term racism contains the negative connotations because people used it for political gain and assigned it those negative connations[/color] - much the same way as has been done with "liberal" and "homophobic".


I have no problem maintaining my earlier statement. It holds true.


Well, perhaps not so much of a pleasure.


There is no pleasure or lack of either way for me. I suspect you presume that the French were talking about Nazi anti-semitism but that wasn't the case. This is the mid-1930s mind you. The French were completely unaware at the time, of what was to come.

Perhaps this little personal family story will give you a hint:

I have maintained my own family genealogy for the last 15 or so years. Several years ago I interviewed my own father about his parents and Aunts/Uncles.

My father's grandparents both came from families that had lived in Quebec since the 1650s. French-Canadians through and through. They had 8 children in Quebec - 6 girls and 3 boys and eventually (in the 1890s) moved the entire family to MN. In the early 1920s the oldest daughter married and a year or two later my grandfather got married. 2 years after he married, another of his sister's got engaged and great-granddad called a meeting "of the men" - himself and the 2 sons.

The issue here was that the 1st daughter had married a Swede. For a French-Canadian girl in MN in the 1920s that was considered "marrying up". The 2nd daughter on the other hand, had become engaged to a man of Danish descent and THAT was a problem because that was marrying down and that wasn't going to be allowed.

The 2 sons caught up with the guy the next day and beat the pulp out of him and he never came back. The following year the daughter married a nice Norweigian man (which was considered below a Swede but on par with a French-Canadian) and they lived happily ever after.

Thus is a tale of "race relations" in the 1920s.

I relate this simply becuase it demonstrates (other than a screwed up family history) that, at the time, "race" was an issue of geopolitical boundries - and even more so in Europe - as well as that of color.

Read the chapter in Mein Kampf titled "Nation and Race" and then look at the competition between Nationalism, Fascism, Communism and Socialism in Europe in the 1920s/1930s. That is what the French were concerned about when they started writing about Nazi racism.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 09:19 pm
fishin version 2.0 wrote:
Quote:
There is no pleasure or lack of either way for me.
The absence of an emotive component is noted.

Quote:
I relate this simply becuase it demonstrates (other than a screwed up family history) that, at the time, "race" was an issue of geopolitical boundries - and even more so in Europe - as well as that of color.

Read the chapter in Mein Kampf titled "Nation and Race" and then look at the competition between Nationalism, Fascism, Communism and Socialism in Europe in the 1920s/1930s. That is what the French were concerned about when they started writing about Nazi racism.


First, geo-political boundaries are hardly the determinative factor here. Then, as now, and as your own story suggests, it is cultural/ethnic difference that are the important factor. Your great grandads brothers wouldn't have beat up the Dane because of his address but because he was a Dane, an inferior sort of creature.

But also, I can't credit your account of the history here. I don't have my copy of Shirer here, so I can't turn to that and paste in all the examples he notes of the anti-semitism (racial inferiority notions/claims) that were common in pre-Hitler German literature. I don't find good reason to accept your claim regarding what the French might have been concerned about in 1935

Quote:
Before World War II racism began to exert great influence on the policies of political movements in Europe, especially those of the Nazi Party in Germany. The persecution of specific racial groups duringthe Holocaust, particularly the Jews, was a product of the Nazi racial view of the world. In the mid-1850s Comte Arthur de Gobineau published his "Essay on the Inequality of Human Races." Before Gobineau, racism was mostly a subject for scientists. He turned racism into a cultural and political issue, by sayingthat the deterioration of the modern age resulted from the mixing of superiorand inferior races. He divided humanity into the black, yellow, and white races, and claimed that only the pure white, or Aryan, race was and could be truly noble
here That's France. That's 1850. Lots on the fellow here

Further...
Quote:
Racism and anti-racism
UNESCO Courier, March, 1996 by Etienne Balibar
The strangely ambiguous relationship between two incompatible ideas
The term "racism" seems to have been introduced into the English language in 1938 in a translation of a book by the German writer Magnus Hirschfeld which had appeared in German four or five years earlier and described the "racial theory" that underlay Hitler's conception of a war between races. The word thus seems to have been coined in Germany to describe the racism of the Nazi state, which was targeted primarily against the Jews but also against other "sub-human" peoples and groups and was based on the Aryan myth. In due course it came to acquire its internationally accepted meaning as a prejudice based on belief in the congenital inequality of human groups.
Pierre-Andre Taguieff, a French philosopher who has made an exhaustive study of the question, has discovered what he calls two "totally distinct appearances" of the word "racism" in France. The first, relatively episodic use of the word occurred between 1895 and 1897 and was connected with the founding of the authoritarian ultra-nationalist organization, Action Francaise, and of an extreme right-wing nationalist newspaper, La Libre Parole. The supporters of this movement, which actively propagated anti-semitism in France and also had close ties with colonial circles, described themselves as "racists", representatives of a "French race" that was to be preserved from degeneration. Then, between 1925 and 1935 the terms "racisme" and "raciste" made a come-back in France but this time were used in a broader sense to designate the doctrine of German fascism, and to translate its key adjective, "volkisch".
here

Finally, fascism as defined in wikipedia. I would merely suggest that you think again whether the term makes any sense at all if you remove the notion of superiority and inferiority.
Quote:
Definitions
As 'racism' carries references to race-based prejudice, violence, or oppression, the term has varying and often hotly contested definitions. 'Racialism' is a related term intended to avoid these negative meanings. According to the Oxford English Dictionary, racism is a belief or ideology that all members of each race possess characteristics or abilities specific to that race, especially to distinguish it as being either superior or inferior to another race or races. The Merriam-Webster's Dictionary defines racism as a belief that race is the primary determinant of human traits and capacities and that racial differences produce an inherent superiority of a particular race, and that it is also the prejudice based on such a belief.[1] The Macquarie Dictionary defines racism thus: the belief that human races have distinctive characteristics which determine their respective cultures, usually involving the idea that one's own race is superior and has the right to rule or dominate others.
here


I suspect there isn't much to be gained in continuing this debate.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 09:21 pm
blatham wrote:
fishin

I'll go back and pick up some other loose ends. By the way, even if you remain a dogmatic reactionary with a mother whose teeth are yellow, it's a pleasure to talk with you again.


On this end as well. It makes me think. (and mom had all her teeth yanked and replaced with dentuires.)

Quote:

Quote:
blatham:
And that's the trick being used when you or someone else labels AA as 'racist'. It is a legal strategy and it is a PR/propaganda strategy. It's been effective. But it is morally incoherent.

fishin:
As opposed to the legal/political strategy of claiming that race based policies are "good"?? How is that morally coherent?


Because they are corrective of prior injustices. Race, by itself, is not the moral issue. Injustice is the moral issue. Look at the traffic cop analogy I used just above to foofie. The cop, to be just or fair, must procede to correct a prior injustice/unfairness by discriminating the northbound traffic from the southbound traffic and now favor one over the other. To not do so (on a theory that discrimination is always bad because it is discrimination) is to end up with a result that is injust.


I agree that injustice is a moral issue but... First you have to have the injustice (racism) and then you have the issue of correcting that injustice. You can't put the cart before the horse. If you can't define the injustice (racism) then you can't concot a method of correcting it, can you? That was what this thread was started about wans't it? The definition of racism?



Quote:

Quote:
blatham
The ML King point, which Occam Bill seemed to be the only one to appreciate, was that such slipshod use of the term 'racism' must also apply to King, to his statements, policies and goals because they were inextricable from discriminations based on race.

To end up in a position where Strom Thurmond and ML King are both placed in the category of 'racist' is where you end up, fishin. That is both morally and intellectually incoherent.

fishin
I have no problem in saying that MLK was racist. Your problem is with your yes/no, black//white, good/bad thinking.


We are both doing yes/no, good/bad. We are just doing it differently. You've argued earlier that all instances of racial discrimination are bad, with variation in degree. I'm arguing that this focus is morally incoherent IF it leads to a policy or idea that racial discriminations ought not to be utilized merely because they are discriminatory BECAUSE prior injustices are removed from the equation and it is those injustices which present the moral dilemma. That's where the moral dilemma sits.
Quote:


But again, that's putting the cart before the horse. See, you want to limt the definition of a word because of what might happen if you don't. This is a combination of a slippery slope and a straw man argument. Seperate the act from what may or may not happen and judge the act - not the possible results.

Quote:

Quote:
MLK, I suspect was aware of his own racism. Your attempt to paint that as being the same as Thurmond is, in itself, intellectually dishonest.


I don't paint them the same. Use of the term "racist" to describe both of them paints them the same.


Only if one accepts that all racism is equeal.

Quote:
If all racial discrimination is bad, then both men are guilty of something immoral or undesireable. I acknowledge your differentiation between shades of bad. But I've not said King was guilty of 'bad'. Your formulation has King as 'bad', as a racial discriminator.


I suspect that MLK would see the AA as undesirable on it's face. He didn't advocate for it in any way outside of as a form of redress.

Quote:
Quote:
King's "ideal" was a color-blind society and in several of his writings and speeches mention AA programs (which he often referred to as "preferential treatment") as "necessary". I can find no reference to him ever stating that he saw them as "good".


Then why the hell did he find them "necessary"? Because he liked the symmetry of X whites = X blacks? Rather obviously, he found them 'necessary' as a means of bringing about a social 'good', that social good being justice and fairness and equality.


So that automatically makes the act itself good? The ends always justify the means? Do you deny that a social good can come from a "bad" act?

1+1 = 2
5-3 = 2

Both of those get us to "2" ("good"). But that doesn't mean that 1 = 5.

A "good" result isn't dependent on "good" acts. You are using your slippery slope here again.



Quote:


Quote:
I have no doubt that King recognized that AA programs were racist - he pretty much stated as much in his 1963 Newsweek article where he called for "discrimination in reverse" as a form of social justice. He made similar comments in several of his other writings as well.

Then why not use "discriminatory" rather than 'racist"? Surely it is a more appropriate term in this case.

And what do we call it when that discrimination is based on race? Isn't that racism?


Quote:
I've been thinking about this all this stuff over the last couple of days. Particularly, I've been musing about the legal and rhetorical moves from a contingent of lawyers and institutions on the right to eviscerate AA programs. I've been wondering why this tact or project was begun.

I think it is a bit difficult to pin down because there are two factors in the mix. The first is the racism such as Thurmond or Wallace represented where they detested blacks so much that they wanted them kept segregated from whites.

But the second factor was the legal ability of the federal government to legislate, say, integrated schools, and enforce such legislation. So the states rights argument becomes a tool for turning back such federal legislation on race.

And that gives some perspective on someone like Bollick (who had been Clarence Thomas' assistant and who shows no personal indications of being a racist such as Thurmond or Wallace) and the institutions he founded and operates within, which are all or almost all funded by that coterie of wealthy right wing families (Koch, Scaife, Coors, Bradley, etc).

Who and what these families have funded concentrate on several particular ends, and the main one is inhibiting the ability of elected government to be an active agent in community affairs. The idea, Norquist said, is to 'get government so small it can be drowned in a bathtub'.


I don't think it was "begun" in so much as it was always there from the start. For starters, I think some of them see equality = equality. But you are also ignoring the changes in tactics from those who support AA programs. If you go back and look at what JFK proposed as "Affirnmative Action" and what we have had there is no comparison.

Proponents of AA programs and added to and changed their minds on what is and what isn't AA as time has marched on. The right isn't operating on it's own here. One side acts and the other side reacts.

And, IMO, the left's tactics have largely led to those of the right. You have to keep in mind that many of these programs were put in place through court orders - not legislation. There was no national discussion and concensus on how to achieve "social justice", what that meant or how long any of the programs were to be in place. There seems to be a mindset on the left of "Well, we won that court decision so that's the end of that!" but that rarely is the case. When a court case is won, it happens based on the rationale the court outlines in it's decision. The minute the rationale for the decision doesn't exist any more the decision is up for testing again. (And legislation is always up for grabs)

And this discussion is just a minute example of the whole thing. The definition for "racism" that you prefer isn't a definition that existed 40 years ago. When people can't get what they want through legislation and the courts and they resort to changing the definition I fully expect others to get upset about it. Think about it - what does the (ultra)femist concept that "all sex is rape" do to the definitions of "rape" and "sex"? If you engage in consensual sex tonight and then find cops knocking on your door in the morning to arrest you for rape you'd probably be just a wee bit upset about it. Suddenly those definitions are the difference between going home and spending 20 years in prison.

Like it or not, the definition that you prefer for rasicm, whether you intend for it to or not, allows one person to do something to another and dodge the "racism" charge and when it's reversed, the charge sticks. Where is "fair", "equeal" or the "social justice" in that?

I think most people "get" the idea that past injustices have to be remedied. What they don't get is the idea that racism can be allowed to continue by some right now and people. The idea that racism was supposed to end was that it was supposed to end for everyone and creating this massive web of loopholes around the word doesn't meet that goal.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 09:22 pm
Would you please stop changing. My eyes are crossing and I'm dizzy.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 09:34 pm
I have to go do some unimportant stuff now.

Let me, with blushing bald head, confide that I found your last post pleasing (to my emotive element). The truth is I've always been fonder of you than of a significant number of cheeses. And yeah, you have always kept me on my toes.

tip of the hat.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 10:11 pm
The assumption that genetic differences make a difference in any way among populations is racism. As Asherman notes it can apply to both "positive" or "negative" characteristics ascribed to one's own group as well as to others. Race does not exist even though genes do. The latter do not congeal into discrete, inherently distinct populations. Genetic traits may be seen to distribute unevenly across populations, but the qualities of the "typical" member of one social population may be closer to those of the "'typical" member of a "racially distinct" group than to many members of his own group. And we must remember that such "traits" include more than just the obvious ones of color, hair texture, facial features, etc.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 10:16 pm
JLNobody wrote:
Race does not exist even though genes do. The latter do not congeal into discrete, inherently distinct populations.


Ha! I like that. I'm going to steal it!

(I'll provide proper attribution of course! Wink )
0 Replies
 
hawkeye10
 
  1  
Reply Wed 20 Feb, 2008 10:25 pm
JLNobody wrote:
. Race does not exist even though genes do.


Race is a helpful way to lump together gene pools and cultural behaviour. So long as race labels remain helpful to categorizing gene pools and cultural expectations of actual humans race is real. The problem is that when you make race lines rigid and all important you demand that the individuals conform to the expectations of their race, and also discourage exploration outside of their race. The whole process in unhelpfully towards any human endeavor, as humanity moves forward with cooperative effort and imagination. Racism is very limiting for individuals and for the collective.
0 Replies
 
Mexica
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Feb, 2008 03:28 am
JLNobody wrote:
The assumption that genetic differences make a difference in any way among populations is racism. As Asherman notes it can apply to both "positive" or "negative" characteristics ascribed to one's own group as well as to others. Race does not exist even though genes do. The latter do not congeal into discrete, inherently distinct populations. Genetic traits may be seen to distribute unevenly across populations, but the qualities of the "typical" member of one social population may be closer to those of the "'typical" member of a "racially distinct" group than to many members of his own group. And we must remember that such "traits" include more than just the obvious ones of color, hair texture, facial features, etc.


Interesting post, JLNobody. I've had a casual interest in the debate over the existence/non-existence of race. So your post has triggered a few questions in my mind, and it sounds as if you have more than casual interest and passing knowledge of this topic. So maybe (hopefully) you can help me with a few of the questions your post sparked for me.

You write that race is non-existent, but you also write that assuming "genetic differences make a difference in any way among populations is racism." Well, that begs the question: how can racism exist if race dose not? Furthermore, are you suggesting that concluding that any difference among different "populations," arising from genetic differences between said populations, is racism? I mean, I'm wondering, do you consider it "racist" to think that hair texture differences between Blacks and Asians is the result of genetic differences between the two races?

Also, what, if any, is the difference between "population" and "race"? Are they not both terms of a system human classification/taxonomy?

Finally, I am curious if you would please explain how greater genetic differences among individuals than genetic differences among races invalidates the concept of race.

I know these are a lot of questions that will require more than a casual explanation, but I'm hoping that you could help me better understand the "there is no such thing as race" position.
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Setanta
 
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Reply Thu 21 Feb, 2008 11:09 am
Prior to the coinage of "racism" and "racist" in the 20th century, the term race was casually and rather imprecisely used to describe taxonomy, but it wasn't applied to humans. Darwin refers to different "races" when describing animals whom he considered to be different species on a morphological basis. The more we learn about humans through genetics, the more apparent it becomes that the human races has flowed, uniting and dividing, in many places and times which invalidate any concept of discrete races. There is a tribe in southern Africa, the Lemba, which claims to be descended from the Jews. Genetic studies carried out by a Jewish gentleman from Harvard University have confirmed that there is high possibility that this is true:

[url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lemba#DNA_testing][b]Wikipedia[/b][/url] wrote:
According to recent genetic research, the presence among the Lemba of a disproportionate number of men carrying a particular polymorphism on the Y chromosome known as the Cohen modal haplotype, which is strongly correlated to Jewish populations and rare among non-Jews, suggests an ancestral link to the Jewish people. Just under 10% of all Lemba have that particular Y chromosomal type which is associated as a signature of Jewish ancestry, proportions found among general Jewish populations.

One particular sub-clan within the Lemba, the Buba clan, is considered by the Lemba to be their priestly clan, while among Jews, the Kohanim are the priestly clan. From a small sample of the Buba, fifty-two percent of males were found to carry the Cohen modal haplotype, which is generally indicative of Y-DNA haplogroup J. Among Jews the marker is also most prevalent among Jewish Kohanim, or priests. As recounted in Lemba oral tradition, the Buba clan "had a leadership role in bringing the Lemba out of Israel" and into Southern Africa.

More microsatellite markers would need to be tested in order to verify the reality (or not) of any such link. The Lemba also have a large percentage of genes often found in non-Arabs from the near east.


Additionally, there is a variety of evidence that Europeans might have migrated to the "New World" more than 10,000 years ago, and that the Amerindians are not exclusively descended from Asian tribes. Some of this evidence is genetic:

[url=http://www.si.edu/Encyclopedia_SI/nmnh/origin.htm][b]The Smithsonian Institute[/b][/url] wrote:
Evidence for diverse migrations into the New World also comes from Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) research on living American Indian populations. These studies have consistently shown similarities between American Indians and recent populations in Asia and Siberia, but also unique American characteristics, which the very early crania have also shown. Evidence for only four mtDNA lineages, characterizing over 95 percent of all modern American Indian populations, may suggest a limited number of founding groups migrating from Asia into the New World. Recently, however, a fifth mtDNA lineage named "X" has turned up in living American Indians and in prehistoric remains for which there does not appear to be an Asian origin. The first variant of X was found in Europeans and may have originated in Eurasia.[/b] Naturally, generations of conflict, intermarriage, disease, and famine would influence the genetic makeup of modern Native Americans. Further work with mtDNA, nuclear DNA (which is more representative of the entire genome), and Y-chromosome data, the male-transmitted complement of mtDNA, will permit better estimates of the genetic similarities between Old and New World groups and help to determine when they would have shared a common ancestor. (emphasis added)


This has been widely discussed by those who support, and those who object to, "the Solutrean hypothesis." The Solutreans were a stone age people in Europe more than 15,000 years ago whose particular method of making flint tools--bifacial, pressure flake points. There are only two places in the ancient world where this flint tool-making technique appears, and that is in the remains of Solutrean culture in Spain and France, and in the Clovis technology of Amerindians (so named after Clovis, New Mexico, where those flint artifacts were first found). According to this hypothesis, Solutreans migrated to the "New World" along the pace ice of the North Atlantic as long ago as 20,000 years, and some people claim that they arrived before the ancestors of Amerindians came from Siberia. A professor in Ontario claims that about 3% of all Amerindians have genetic markers of ancient Europeans, and that this rises to 25% among the Amerindians of eastern Canada. Not every agrees, of course.

There does seem to be some genetic evidence, however:

[url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solutrean_hypothesis#MtDNA_Haplogroup_X][b]Wikipedia[/b][/url] wrote:
Mitochondrial DNA analysis lends conditional support to the idea insofar as the fact that some members of some native North American tribes share a common yet distant maternal ancestry with some present-day individuals in Europe identified by mtDNA Haplogroup X. It is possible that Haplogroup X came to the Americas via Northeastern Asia or Siberia, but unlike other Native American mtDNA Haplogroups A, B, C and D, Haplogroup X is presently absent from the region, although occurrence of Haplogroup X2 of more recent origin (i.e. more recently than 5000 BC) has been identified in the Altai Republic.

The New World haplogroup X DNA (now called subgroup X2a) is as different from any of the Old World X2 lineages as they are from each other, indicating a very ancient origin. Although haplogroup X occurs only at a frequency of about 3% for the total current indigenous population of the Americas, it is a major haplogroup in northeastern North America, where among the Algonquian peoples of the Great Lakes Region it allegedly comprises up to 25% of mtDNA types. It has been suggested that its relative concentration in northeastern North America indicates an early North Atlantic route for bearers of this haplotype, although it is found in smaller percentages in other regions, among the Sioux, Nuu-Chah-Nulth, and Yakama in western North America as well as the Yanomani in Brazil.


Given what we don't know about humans in pre-history, evidence such as this suggests to me that a key factor in determining speciation in animals, apart from no interspecific breeding, which is sexual isolation, may well not apply to humans. Not only is there only one human species surviving the modern world (as far as we know) based on the ability of all humans to interbreed and produce reproductively viable offspring, but evidence such as that given above suggests to me that there was not necessarily assured sexual isolation among all human groups at all times.
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