Lucifer is the name of a Roman God associated with light. It is not the name of Satan.
The site I posted to you was to prove you were wrong in that all Christians and all scholars believed that the verse was referring to Satan. Not the wording, "some scholars", and notice how flimsy the evidence is for that verse being a reference to Satan, and notice how it isn't given as much attention as the first meaning.
When I have to make a scholarly argument, I provide evidence for both sides to show I'm not biased and then if the evidence for one side is overwhelmingly in favour of that side, then I say that that is more true than the other.
Notice that the second meaning of the passage isn't as valid as the first. The first meaning, that of being a taunt against the King of Babylon, is valid, because the Bible says so. You can't argue against it. The second isn't as valid, because only fallible scholars say it.
Scholars think it means that, because the language Christ uses to describe Satan is similar? Well, that's not proof.
May I also state that Lucifer is a Latin word meaning light-bearer and was an astrological term for Venus and was the direct translation of the Greek word, phosphorus.
Only later interpretations, such as Dante's the Divine Comedy and Milton's Paradise Lost led to the common idea that Lucifer = Satan.
The original Hebrew text stated הילל בן שחר (heilel ben-schahar), meaning "Venus, son of the morning" or "Venus, the brilliant one".
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucifer
Also, Jesus himself was also called Lucifer in II Peter 1:19. Technically, however, he was called phosphorus or morning-star, but translated into Latin it's Lucifer. Jesus himself says he is the morning star (Lucifer) in Rev 22:16, albeit in the Greek text phosphorus is not used.
All this proves is that the contention that Isaiah 14:12 refers to Satan is a very shaky one that isn't as solid as the contention that it refers to the King of Babylon.
Lucifer does not equal Satan.
If you insist on believing that the Bible is the literal truth, then you can't state that something like Isaiah 14:12 is metaphorically speaking about Satan as well as the King of Babylon. From someone who insists on having it one way or the other, never in between, you have a bizarre definition of literal.