Jesus Christ and Homosexuality.

http://www.abc.net.au/science/news/health/HealthRepublish_1509808.htm

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Which parts of the Bible do you believe, Rex? How about 2 Timothy 3:16?

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neologist wrote:

Which parts of the Bible do you believe, Rex? How about 2 Timothy 3:16?

3:16
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Comment:
Is that is all scripture "with distinction" or all scripture "without exception"? The word "all" is used both ways in the scripture. So are you saying God inspired Moses to have homosexuals stoned? Which God do you worship, the God of law or the God of liberty? They can't both be the same for God never changes remember? One God has to be an imposter posing as the true God. Imputing sin wherever and whenever he could. Should we trust the devil (God of this world) to guide us in liberty? When you figure out which "God" has inspired what part of the word then you will know the truth. Again flowery words of death do not inspire one to "righteousness".

Ga 2:21
I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

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The law, with all it's severity, was/is our tutor leading to Christ. (Galatians 3:24)

One of the failings of many calling themselves christian is their failure to realize the Bible as a whole. The NT can not be fully understood without the OT.

I am fully aware that my own personality, as it is, would have prevented me from acting to enforce the punishments indicated in the law. That does not mean the judgements were not righteous, or that those who sinned and were executed may not yet be entitled to resurrection.

But Jehovah's underlying standards and personality have not changed.

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neologist wrote:

The law, with all it's severity, was/is our tutor leading to Christ. (Galatians 3:24)

One of the failings of many calling themselves christian is their failure to realize the Bible as a whole. The NT can not be fully understood without the OT.

I am fully aware that my own personality, as it is, would have prevented me from acting to enforce the punishments indicated in the law. That does not mean the judgements were not righteous, or that those who sinned and were executed may not yet be entitled to resurrection.

But Jehovah's underlying standards and personality have not changed.

Jehovah changed often (in the understanding of the people)...

One minute Jehovah needs the sacrificial blood of animals then the next they are an abomination to him. We can see either a fickle God or a God false God impersonating the true God. The law did not bring us unto Christ, it only brought the people headaches, misery and division.

The God of this world writes his words in stone (earthly) but the one true God writes his words in our hearts (heavenly).

In the beginning the word was "with" God but over time the word drifted away from God.

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A changeable God gives license to one's nature. It is not likely to be true to reality.

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neologist wrote:

A changeable God gives license to one's nature. It is not likely to be true to reality.

I agree, but God did not change the word of God changed. Thus the word was hijacked by something that was not the true God.

If that was not the case then we would not have needed a "new" word or testament.

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True liberty cannot exist with law constantly coercing people into it's forms.

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Rex, the Mosaic law was designed to be impossible for imperfect humans to keep. When Jesus kept the law, it became possible for him to offer himself as the perfect sacrifice.

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neologist wrote:

Rex, the Mosaic law was designed to be impossible for imperfect humans to keep. When Jesus kept the law, it became possible for him to offer himself as the perfect sacrifice.

Jesus was granted "grace" from God and that is how he kept the law. Grace is only for those who need it. This grace was possible because his blood was from God not Adam. So Jesus was the second Adam before the sin. So Jesus was not actually bound by law because he was not guilty of the original sin so he did not have to atone for the sin in HIS blood.

Jesus Christ in the Bible did not pass judgment on one single homosexual during his ministry. Maybe they were all dead from the law causing them to commit suicide as teens? Maybe homosexuals did not come to him because they are too "proud" and do not think they are sinful or wrong. Maybe Jesus did not accept the law that homosexuality in general was sinful? If one in ten men are born gay is one saying they were all dead and/or not one of them could have believed to be "healed"? Some heterosexual Biblical preachers say the catholic church omitted that part from the Bible along with Mary Magdalene. Yet they have not one shred of evidence from the "first century" substantiating that Jesus ever healed a homosexual. If homosexuality is so wrong why was this omitted? Is it emphasis by omission or is it omitted because it was no longer of relevant legal importance? Can you really visualize Jesus in your mind healing a homosexual considering that Jesus himself may have never slept with a woman. Kind of like a logistical rub.

Ps 133:1
Behold, how good and how pleasant it is for brethren to dwell together in unity!

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RexRed wrote:

neologist wrote:
Rex, the Mosaic law was designed to be impossible for imperfect humans to keep. When Jesus kept the law, it became possible for him to offer himself as the perfect sacrifice.

Jesus was granted "grace" from God and that is how he kept the law. Grace is only for those who need it. This grace was possible because his blood was from God not Adam. So Jesus was the second Adam before the sin. So Jesus was not actually bound by law because he was not guilty of the original sin so he did not have to atone for the sin in HIS blood.

Yes, but he kept the law.

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neologist wrote:

RexRed wrote:
neologist wrote:
Rex, the Mosaic law was designed to be impossible for imperfect humans to keep. When Jesus kept the law, it became possible for him to offer himself as the perfect sacrifice.

Jesus was granted "grace" from God and that is how he kept the law. Grace is only for those who need it. This grace was possible because his blood was from God not Adam. So Jesus was the second Adam before the sin. So Jesus was not actually bound by law because he was not guilty of the original sin so he did not have to atone for the sin in HIS blood.

Yes, but he kept the law.

Where does it say he kept the law? It says he was without sin.

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Ro 4:15
Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

Ro 5:13
(For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

Ga 5:23
Meekness, temperance: against such there is no law.

Comment:
Jesus lived by liberty not law. He was our example.

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Was it not considered sin to violate the Mosaic Law?

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There is the way of liberty OR the way of law.

One way leads to death the other to eternal life.

One is fleshly and earthly and the other is spiritual and heavenly.

You cannot live in between. You cannot serve two masters.

You are either guided by the spirit of truth or guided by the law.

The spirit is life, liberty and peace the law is death, judgment and wrath.

Liberty is the true God, law is the false God.

This is the very heart of why the world is warring amongst themselves because they are subjecting their own people to this law and it has bought judgment guilt and wrath down upon their poor innocent souls. So the blood of Christ Jesus is of no effect and they remain in the prisons of a false God's mockery of the image of man.

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neologist wrote:

Was it not considered sin to violate the Mosaic Law?

Yes, and Jesus did not wash his hands before eating...

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Mr 7:18
And he saith unto them, Are ye so without understanding also? Do ye not perceive, that whatsoever thing from without entereth into the man, it cannot defile him;

Mr 7:19 -
Because it entereth not into his heart, but into the belly, and goeth out into the draught, purging all meats?

Comment: That is completely contrary to the Mosaic "law" that says ham/pork can defile a man. Is this a rewriting of the law or something else? Something greater than the law?

Are we defiled by what we say against the liberty of others? So Jesus is saying one sin is bigger than another. That living by law is a greater "sin" than living by liberty and grace.

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RexRed wrote:

neologist wrote:
Was it not considered sin to violate the Mosaic Law?

Yes, and Jesus did not wash his hands before eating...

Was he violating the law or Pharisaic tradition?

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Mt 5:18
For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Comment:
Why would any law ever "pass" if it is perfect as it is?

Once all is fulfilled then shall laws pass?

Has heaven and earth already passed?

Has all been fulfilled?

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The law still exists. If we could follow it, we would have no need for Jesus' sacrifice. We would live on indefinitely. That is why Jesus replaced the law with the New Covenant

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Jesus Christ and Homosexuality.

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