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Are people really victim when it comes to beign raped?

 
 
jespah
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 11:42 am
Absolutely, I was just going with the law.com definition I had checked above. It's definitely a power play-type act.
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Bella Dea
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 12:31 pm
You all might as well give up trying to convince anyone that 1) rape isn't about sex and 2) the victim is never at fault. There are few of us here who understand this.

No amount of proof will ever change their minds.

Until perhaps, it happens to them.
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panzade
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 05:01 pm
Bella Dea wrote:
You all might as well give up trying to convince anyone that 1) rape isn't about sex and 2) the victim is never at fault. There are few of us here who understand this.

No amount of proof will ever change their minds.

Until perhaps, it happens to them.


A lot of these guys wouldn't understand til they spent some time in a max security pen. Then the light would go on.
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ehBeth
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 05:09 pm
RaceDriver205 wrote:
Well bugger me!


Precisely.
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nimh
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 07:52 pm
Re: Are people really victim when it comes to beign raped?
Heeven wrote:
In the case of sexual intimacy, BOTH parties should want it.

Hasnt any of you ever 'gone along' with sex with your partner even tho you didnt really feel like it - but just cos it was clear (s)he really wanted it, meant a lot to him/her, and you didnt want to make him/her feel bad - so you went along for his/her sake?

I have.

I've also been in the position - see, when someone says "no", I stop, period. Is how I've been raised, pretty strictly so (my mom was a passionate feminist). No means no and all that. And I'm still sticking to that, because I think its how things should be. But yes, Ive had someone being disappointed over me stopping, taking it "literally", you know, when she'd wanted to be, like - persuaded..

Ive also had to hear an ex talk about how a later lover, he was so good - she tended to be afraid, so, their first time, she told him no halfway through - and he did stop, but a little later initiated again, and it was great! Same convo still - you know, sometimes, for her, intercourse hurt - and whenever it did, with us, and she told me, ow no, I stopped, tried something else, etc. But now she was telling me how this guy - with him it also hurt for a moment, but he just pushed on regardless, and it was like - once that ice was broken, it was great after that!

Yeah.

Overwhelming majority of rape cases, I think the numbers are, takes place by someone close, often one's own partner. In many of those cases, I suppose, we're not talking about the psychopathic rapist who is just out for control, and had made his plan to rape long in advance. Well, there are plenty of those within a relationship too I suppose, abusive husbands... but there must be a lot of cases that dont fit that picture too.

I personally think anyone who continues with intercourse (or oral sex or whatever equivalent) after a "no", is guilty of rape. Period. So I'm sticking with "no=no" myself, also, always. But I do that because I personally believe that's the right thing - not because I believe that every woman actually does always mean "no" when she says "no". I wish it were true, cause it would make life easier, fairer and more sensible (not to mention healthier). But I think its not fair to pretend like there arent people out there giving explicitly mixed messages about it, and blaming you if you dont pick up on them correctly.

I personally rather take the blame for not having "understood" that the idea was for me to "persuade" her still when she said no, and being taken for a sissy or something, than assuming that that is what she wants and then being blamed for assaulting her cause she did actually mean "no". But I can see how some young guy ends up the wrong way in that minefield once. (Twice, you're an idiot.)

Dunno. I dont have, like, a totally worked out opinion on all this or anything - just some doubts, like these here.
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nimh
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 07:54 pm
Also, kinda, like one that Chai pointed out. If someone, at the very very last moment (or already during intercourse, for that matter), says "no", you should still stop - period, end of story. (I had a rather fierce discussion with my father about that, once, who disagreed that that was a reasonable expectation - he's 65, different generation.)

But will you always be able to angelically lie back and smile, at it? I can see reacting pissed off (depending on the relationship and circumstance, of course).. If the other then gives in after all and then has sex with you - is it rape? Taking "anger" as a "means of pressure", you can say yes, it is ... anger was used to pressure the other into sex. And I can see that point, I do think its important to have legal protection against people using emotional blackmail to get sex. But I also see how expecting the other to yield without momentary resentment or complaint might just be asking a bit much ...

Your takes?
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panzade
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 08:40 pm
In answer to the thread title: unequivocal ~YES~
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sozobe
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 09:00 pm
One of the biggest problems I have with this question is that there are so many possible variations of how the situation could play out, and so rarely any way to prove anything beyond the testimony of the two people involved.

I think there are two basic categories of rape -- one of which is when a person sets out to do harm, and does it. Another is when a person does not set out to do harm, but the situation escalates to the point where harm is done.

The first category is nice and straightforward. The man (or woman) who does that is a bad person and deserves a hefty punishment.

The second category is complicated, though. For one thing, as nimh indicates, everyone should be able to stop, and if they can't, yes, that's bad. I remember having a discussion about this with some people (I think IRL, but maybe here or Abuzz), where someone (I think female) was saying that of course, if a guy gets to a certain point he can't stop, and a guy responded with something like, "Geez, you think that badly of men? Of course we can stop. We might not like it, but we can."

And nobody wants to float the idea that, as a general concept, a rape victim might contribute to the rape because it's such a thoroughly destructive concept, when applied in anything but the most specific circumstance -- which goes back to what I said about lack of proof and he said/ she said.

So, while on the one hand I don't want to see a guy do serious time and have his life ruined because he and his girlfriend were drunk and he was just out of it and not paying attention and she couldn't believe he wasn't listening when she said "not tonight honey" and then "stop" and then "no!" and she didn't want to scream because that would make it something that she was trying to believe wasn't happening but then found herself having nightmares and plunging into depression and finally told someone; I think the consequences of saying "see, his girlfriend contributed" are also ruinous.
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Eorl
 
  1  
Wed 17 May, 2006 09:06 pm
I can only think of one example where the victim is arguably not the real victim.

That would be when an underage person convinces an adult person to have sex, and then claims statutory rape.
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sakhi
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 02:06 am
Bella Dea wrote:
You all might as well give up trying to convince anyone that 1) rape isn't about sex and 2) the victim is never at fault. There are few of us here who understand this.

No amount of proof will ever change their minds.

Until perhaps, it happens to them.


I agree with Bella. There is no excuse for rape, IMHO. Not even if the woman is dancing in front of the man naked.

Assume that for a moment, we accept this theory - that it is provocative for a woman to dance naked in front of a man and therefore, if a rape ensued, it would be partly her fault too. Someone will extend the same logic to suit "their" definition of provocative behavior. My mum would say a girl who walked down the road with a little cleavage shown is "asking" for rape. Bigoted muslim men take the same logic further and say the face of a woman provokes the man to rape.

Therefore, there is no room for grey areas. No fault of the rape victim. Period.

(Btw, the same logic applies to mugging or expensive jewelry. But I'm sure everyone agrees rape is by far more traumatic than anything else and cannot be compared to mere mugging)
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nimh
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 03:22 am
Hmm, I dont know whether I buy into the "slippery slope" argument ..

I can see the point, conceptually, but "slippery slope" arguments tend to be pretty unfair on the specific case in question ("We have to treat this according to the harshest possible interpretation, because if we didn't then soon all kinds of cases further down the line would also ...")
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sakhi
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 03:41 am
No, it's not just another slippery slope argument. My mother genuinely thinks women who show a bit of cleavage are somewhat responsible if they were to be raped. Muslim men really dress their women in Burkhas. These are all true...they do not exist in just my slippery slope argument. And that's why I believe that the rape victim is totally blameless. Always.
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snood
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:18 am
Why is it that the words and actions before a crime like say, battery can be considered in the prosecution of a crime - if, for instance "fighting words" were spoken to incite rage - but the words and actions of a woman can't be considered if they were obviously intended to incite lust?
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nimh
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:19 am
I believe you that your mother does. But it is a slippery slope argument. Does your mother's POV really have to mean that we should extrapolate our disagreement with it systematically to anything and any situation that remotely hints of the same logic - even if the situation itself is quite or totally different? Just so the logic can't possibly be applied by her POV as well?

That's why it is a slippery slope argument. You're saying that, even though the situation itself is totally different (say, she's dancing naked in front of the man she's been flirting with, rather than walking down the street showing a lock of hair), we should nevertheless treat it exactly the same, because otherwise >slippery slope<, soon the same logic will be applied against those just walking down the street showing some cleavage or a lock of hair.

Not sure whether I buy into that, thats all I'm saying. It strikes me like saying that, well, we have to (I'll give two options for those of different POV):

- accept the ban on marijuana, because if we allow it to be sold, the drug promoters can use the same legalisation logic for crack cocaine as well.

- accept the sale of crack cocaine, because if we accept that it needs to be curtailed, the moral crusaders will use the same logic against weed as well.

Again, I'm not here to argue that dancing naked in front of a guy justifies him raping you - thats just bullshit, and men do have the capacity of self-restraint as well. But I also think that it's kind of - ignoring reality - to act like every case is the same, and there are no degrees in this ever at all.
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material girl
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:20 am
sakhi wrote:
No, it's not just another slippery slope argument. My mother genuinely thinks women who show a bit of cleavage are somewhat responsible if they were to be raped.


So if a guy is wearing a tight tshirt with his nipples showing through and tight trousers he is asking to be raped?
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sakhi
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:27 am
snood wrote:
Why is it that the words and actions before a crime like say, battery can be considered in the prosecution of a crime - if, for instance "fighting words" were spoken to incite rage - but the words and actions of a woman can't be considered if they were obviously intended to incite lust?


"fighting words" spoken to incite rage. I don't buy that. Muslims get angry and go about rioting because they see their provocative cartoon of their prophet. Hindus riot when they see the nude painting of a Godess. Nobody can "incite" anybody into commiting crime, IMHO. The person who commits the crime is to blame and no one else. Applies to all crimes, including rape. Especially to rape. And btw. as Bella said, rape is usually about anger/rage and not lust.
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snood
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:33 am
sakhi wrote:
snood wrote:
Why is it that the words and actions before a crime like say, battery can be considered in the prosecution of a crime - if, for instance "fighting words" were spoken to incite rage - but the words and actions of a woman can't be considered if they were obviously intended to incite lust?


"fighting words" spoken to incite rage. I don't buy that. Muslims get angry and go about rioting because they see their provocative cartoon of their prophet. Hindus riot when they see the nude painting of a Godess. Nobody can "incite" anybody into commiting crime, IMHO. The person who commits the crime is to blame and no one else. Applies to all crimes, including rape. Especially to rape. And btw. as Bella said, rape is usually about anger/rage and not lust.


Whether you "buy" the concept of "fighting words" or not, it is a legal ly acceptable argument, with precedent.
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sakhi
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:35 am
nimh wrote:
Again, I'm not here to argue that dancing naked in front of a guy justifies him raping you - thats just bullshit, and men do have the capacity of self-restraint as well. But I also think that it's kind of - ignoring reality - to act like every case is the same, and there are no degrees in this ever at all.


I get your point, nimh. And I dont think the drug analogy is fair. Is cocaine a higher form of marijuana...? I'm not getting into that. Ban on drugs is a contentious issue. And I'm afraid I dont know enough to have an opinion on that.

But I still think you're missing something. Every rape case is not the same, I agree. There may be different situations..but in all of them, the blame lies entirely with the perpeterator of the crime.
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sakhi
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:38 am
material girl wrote:
sakhi wrote:
No, it's not just another slippery slope argument. My mother genuinely thinks women who show a bit of cleavage are somewhat responsible if they were to be raped.


So if a guy is wearing a tight tshirt with his nipples showing through and tight trousers he is asking to be raped?


Well, some people here certainly think so. Not me. When I was quoting my mother I was trying to highlighting the dangers of placing (even a small percentage of) blame on the rape victim.
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sakhi
 
  1  
Thu 18 May, 2006 04:41 am
snood wrote:
sakhi wrote:
snood wrote:
Why is it that the words and actions before a crime like say, battery can be considered in the prosecution of a crime - if, for instance "fighting words" were spoken to incite rage - but the words and actions of a woman can't be considered if they were obviously intended to incite lust?


"fighting words" spoken to incite rage. I don't buy that. Muslims get angry and go about rioting because they see their provocative cartoon of their prophet. Hindus riot when they see the nude painting of a Godess. Nobody can "incite" anybody into commiting crime, IMHO. The person who commits the crime is to blame and no one else. Applies to all crimes, including rape. Especially to rape. And btw. as Bella said, rape is usually about anger/rage and not lust.


Whether you "buy" the concept of "fighting words" or not, it is a legal ly acceptable argument, with precedent.


I do not know about that. And I don't know about what you really mean by fighting words. And btw, the law does not accept that a woman's actions or words can incite rape, does it?
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