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STATE OF THE UNION AND RECOMMENDATIONS

 
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Mon 13 Feb, 2006 01:12 pm
Quote:
For example, one placing a cup of hot coffee between one's legs, spilling it there, and thereby scalding one's thighs, is not the fault of the maker of that coffee.


Well, when the cup of coffee is a Hundred degrees hotter than recommended for human consumption, the fault probably lies equally with he/she who spilled it, and with the preparor of that coffee; not the manufacturer of the coffee specifically.

Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Mon 13 Feb, 2006 02:39 pm
Cycloptichorn wrote:
Quote:
For example, one placing a cup of hot coffee between one's legs, spilling it there, and thereby scalding one's thighs, is not the fault of the maker of that coffee.


Well, when the cup of coffee is a Hundred degrees hotter than recommended for human consumption, the fault probably lies equally with he/she who spilled it, and with the preparor of that coffee; not the manufacturer of the coffee specifically.

Cycloptichorn


Water boils at 212 degrees Fahrenheit. So does coffee! Are you claiming that coffee at a temperature of 112 degrees (100 degrees less) is "recommended?" I don't think so. That temperature is barely warm enough for a hot shower -- air temperatures in Arizona during the summer climb to 115 degrees.

How about 50 degrees higher than "recommended (i.e., 162 degrees)?" I don't know about what you recommend, but almost all coffee is prepared at temperatures over 182 degrees -- usually very near if not at boiling temperature.

Every adult should know that putting coffee that hot between your legs (bare or covered) is dangerous, and the coffee preparer should not be compelled to compensate anyone for the damage done by such a dumb act.
0 Replies
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Mon 13 Feb, 2006 02:51 pm
Prepared and served are two very different things. If you tried to drink a 212 degree cup of coffee, you'd probably burn your throat and stomach; it might even result in death.

Here's an interesting post on the subject:

Quote:
Bad Analogies
by PG
To Wings & Vodka's dread, I suspect, I haven't quite finished with the McDonald's coffee case, which probably has the same Godwin's Rule-like properties on a blawg that abortion does on political blogs. While reading the otherwise useful comments to my first post, I noticed the shortage of good comparisons to this case.

Most of the attempted analogies fail because they ignore a distinctive aspect of Liebeck, which may be peculiar to the food and beverage industry: that it was necessary for the product to be at a third-degree-burn causing temperature while being manufactured, but it had to cool down considerably before being fit for consumption.

Ted tries to draw a parallel to his having gouged himself with a knife while cutting a bagel. The problem here is that household knives are never meant to be applied to skin. McDonald's coffee, on the other hand, is intended to be put into contact with one's most delicate skin, at the mouth's lips and interior. Similarly, Deoxy's examples of automobiles and airplanes also lack this feature of Liebeck. Automobiles are never meant to hit other large objects; airplanes are never meant to crash.

Guns, hot car engines and running lawnmowers pose a better comparison. When a homeowner buys a gun, she intends for it to cause injury when she fires it at someone. However, when guns have fired because the safety must be off to remove the bullets (as in this case), the gun has caused an injury that is not compatible with its purpose, and the manufacturer may be sued for the defective design.

Car engines and lawnmower blades also are situational hazards. One can safely touch a car engine as long as it isn't hot, and one can (more or less) safely touch lawnmower blades as long as they aren't in motion. Engines must heat in order for the car to move, and blades must whir in order to cut grass, but these are dangerous when in operation and shortly thereafter. The coffee, on the other hand, should not be dangerous during its consumption.

The facts of Liebeck are: The plaintiff was a passenger (not the driver) in a car. She purchased the coffee and carried it with the lid on until the car stopped. When the car was no longer in motion, she presumably deemed it safe to remove the lid and drink the coffee. However, at that time the coffee was still at a high temperature that certainly would have burned her mouth, as it did cause third degree burns to the skin of her pelvis and thighs.

To summarize this incredibly long-winded argument, the difficulty with the McDonald's coffee is that it is dangerous upon being served to customers. Coffee must be at high temperatures -- minimum 170 degrees F -- in order to be brewed properly, but the temperature must go down by at least 30 degrees in order to be drunk without scalding one's own mouth. If coffee manufacturers are in a dilemma -- the coffee must be burning hot during production, yet not upon purchase -- the obvious solution seems to be to make the coffee with the necessary heat, then wait for it to cool down enough not to cause serious burns before giving it to customers.


http://www.blogdenovo.org/archives/000479.html

The problem wasn't that the coffee was made too hot, it is that it was served too hot. This is the fault of the Preparor, not the drinker; if the plaintiff had attempted to drink the coffee, it would have undoubtedly burned her mouth and throat.

I do understand that this is a popular way to take shots at trial lawyers, however.

Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Mon 13 Feb, 2006 03:44 pm
Cycloptichorn wrote:
Prepared and served are two very different things. If you tried to drink a 212 degree cup of coffee, you'd probably burn your throat and stomach; it might even result in death.
Yes, if anyone is dumb enough to drink or pour or touch any 212 degree drink or soup or whatever, it will burn them. Surely, it's reasonable to expect adults not to drink or pour or touch any 212 degree drink or soup or whatever until it cools down. Surely it's reasonable to expect any adult to be able to tell when something is too hot without drinking it or putting it between their legs. Any adult (and/or their lawyer) who doesn't follow that dictim has one hell of a nerve blaming any part of the damage done on anyone other than her or himself.

Gad, whatever has happened to the legal principle of personal responsibility?

I learned that principle the easy way at the age of three. But I guess by contemporary legal standards that make me precocious. Truth is my mommy told me! Mommy said, "Son, wait 'til that soup cools down before you eat it, or you will burn your tongue."

Hmmmm ... maybe my mommy was precocious!
Confused
...
The problem wasn't that the coffee was made too hot, it is that it was served too hot. This is the fault of the Preparor, not the drinker; if the plaintiff had attempted to drink the coffee, it would have undoubtedly burned her mouth and throat.
No, it is the fault of the drinker -- or in the legal case, the hold-it-between-her-thighs-er. It is not the fault of the preparer or server or their employer. Adults the world over are well acquainted with how to painlessly determine that something is too hot and too cold. They simply sniff it or hold their hand near it. If it is too hot, they wait for it to cool down.

If their mommy didn't tell them that, then they learned it the hard way, long ago all by their little selves, before they became adults.

...
Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Mon 13 Feb, 2006 03:45 pm
There is no way the coffee was prepared hotter than boiling and anybody who has made coffee on a campfire has had boiled coffee and most of us have poured it right out of that pot into the cup and yes, it is hot and we LIKE it that way. And yeah sometimes we have to wait a minute or two for it to cool. People who buy coffee to go want it extra hot so it won't get too cool before it is drunk.

And ANY coffee that is sold as a legitimate hot cup of coffee will be quite painful when poured on ones thighs and genitals.

So unless the preparer should be required to tell all customers that hot coffee is not to be transported between the thighs, especially in a moving car, I agree with Ican. If the preparer POURED the coffee on the customer, that would be different. But had the customer not transported the coffee in a completely idiotic way, there would most likely have been no injury.

To legitimately determine if the coffee was served at a dangerous temperature, they would have needed a number of complaints from customer who did experience injury to their mouths when drinking it. I am unaware of any such series of complaints.
0 Replies
 
okie
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 12:34 pm
Foxfyre wrote:
There is no way the coffee was prepared hotter than boiling and anybody who has made coffee on a campfire has had boiled coffee and most of us have poured it right out of that pot into the cup and yes, it is hot and we LIKE it that way. And yeah sometimes we have to wait a minute or two for it to cool. People who buy coffee to go want it extra hot so it won't get too cool before it is drunk.


Agreed. Some people wish to be protected from any and every danger every single hour of their lives, without any personal responsibility whatsover. Liberal mindset. Now if the coffee was poured just about right, but was transported for a few minutes, then the coffee was not as hot, then there would be complaints that the coffee was not made hot enough. Anybody see a parallel here. Bush was criticized for not doing enough to prevent 911, but now that he is doing more, there are complaints that he is doing too much and violating everybody's rights. Some people will complain about virtually everything, especially if they have a severe dislike for somebody.

Foxfyre, I dropped in the comment above, but mainly I wanted to let you know I got your message and appreciated your comments. I tried to return a reply, but it was not allowed - I guess because I am too new on this forum.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 01:15 pm
You're welcome Okie. I don't know what criteria is used for PM privileges, but at any rate be sure to post something in the Bush Supporters thread (even if you aren't) just so you'll be a part of the group there.

I do agree that there is no way to make everything safe even when misused. In a proper container, hot coffee, even scalding hot coffee, is perfectly safe unless poured onto unprotected or insufficiently protected skin. I honestly don't know how coffee can be served other than not hot without presenting a hazard to those who carelessly or stupidly pour it onto unprotected or insufficiently protected skin.

I like getting those steaks or fajitas still sizzling on a metal platter too. That could also cause some damage if I decided to dump it into my lap.
0 Replies
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 02:09 pm
I'm not trying to stand up for any specific case in general; just remembered the reasoning behind the Coffee case in one of my law classes.

Even though I'm Liberal, I don't think we need to be 'protected' or warned about every single things. I find a lot of warning labels to be ridiculous.

Quote:
I like getting those steaks or fajitas still sizzling on a metal platter too. That could also cause some damage if I decided to dump it into my lap.


Usually the Waiter/tress says 'careful, this plate is hot.' Just like the coffee cups now say 'careful, this coffee is hot!' It's unnessecary for you and I; but maybe it will save some poor rube a burn someday, so there's not a lot of harm in it.

This whole conversation spawned from a discussion of Tort reform and jury awards; I do believe that awards of a size to actually hurt companies and corporations who are negligent are appropriate, but I think there should be great standards set to meet the criteria of negligence, and stupidity of the user shouldn't generally be one of them.

Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
DontTreadOnMe
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 02:44 pm
Cycloptichorn wrote:
I do believe that awards of a size to actually hurt companies and corporations who are negligent are appropriate, but I think there should be great standards set to meet the criteria of negligence, and stupidity of the user shouldn't generally be one of them.

Cycloptichorn


amen brother.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 05:49 pm
Cyclop wrote
Quote:
The problem wasn't that the coffee was made too hot, it is that it was served too hot. This is the fault of the Preparor, not the drinker; if the plaintiff had attempted to drink the coffee, it would have undoubtedly burned her mouth and throat.

I do understand that this is a popular way to take shots at trial lawyers, however.


This is the problem in a nutshell. What is too hot to serve? Is there a law regarding this? Or should a customer be allowed to buy a cup of very hot coffee for the road? Is it really necessary that a coffee cup be labeled "hot contents'? Or is it sufficient to realize normal people know this?

These are all issues that true tort reform will have to consider.
0 Replies
 
Ticomaya
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 06:34 pm
And let's consider a hypothetical:

Vicky walks into a McDonalds (why not?), and before she orders her food, she walks to the bathroom to wash her hands. She turns on the hot water, cause she likes to wash her hands in hot water, but unbeknownst to Vicky, the hot water heater had just been replaced, and accidentally set for too hot a temperature. The scalding hot water (170 degrees, let's say) caused third degree burns on her hands and wrists. (You can substitute Vicky's 8 year old son for the victim if you want.)

Now, it shouldn't be necessary to place a "Caution! Hot!" sign on every hot water tap, and it's also true that normal people know it's hot, but they don't expect it to be THAT hot.
0 Replies
 
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 07:19 pm
Ticomaya wrote:
And let's consider a hypothetical:

Vicky walks into a McDonalds (why not?), and before she orders her food, she walks to the bathroom to wash her hands. She turns on the hot water, cause she likes to wash her hands in hot water, but unbeknownst to Vicky, the hot water heater had just been replaced, and accidentally set for too hot a temperature. The scalding hot water (170 degrees, let's say) caused third degree burns on her hands and wrists. (You can substitute Vicky's 8 year old son for the victim if you want.)

Now, it shouldn't be necessary to place a "Caution! Hot!" sign on every hot water tap, and it's also true that normal people know it's hot, but they don't expect it to be THAT hot.

I figure that when it comes out of the spicket steaming (at 170 degrees that's what it will do), I better turn on some cold water to cool it down some. When the spickets are separate for hot and cold. I shut off steaming water and endure cold. But in either case, I do not think it fair or rational to hold either the owner or the installer responsible if I fail to take such precautions and burn my hands as a consequence.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 07:21 pm
Ticomaya wrote:
And let's consider a hypothetical:

Vicky walks into a McDonalds (why not?), and before she orders her food, she walks to the bathroom to wash her hands. She turns on the hot water, cause she likes to wash her hands in hot water, but unbeknownst to Vicky, the hot water heater had just been replaced, and accidentally set for too hot a temperature. The scalding hot water (170 degrees, let's say) caused third degree burns on her hands and wrists. (You can substitute Vicky's 8 year old son for the victim if you want.)

Now, it shouldn't be necessary to place a "Caution! Hot!" sign on every hot water tap, and it's also true that normal people know it's hot, but they don't expect it to be THAT hot.


So what is the solution? If I turn on the hot water tap, I test it very carefully to be sure it isn't going to burn me and then adjust with cold water until it is the right temperature. I think my 8-year-olds did the same--at least I don't recall them ever getting burned from a hot water tap. But even if a case is made for negligence, does this really compare with a cup of hot coffee that a patron expects to be hot?

And who should ultimately be liable if it is decided that negligence exists? McDonald's? Or the plumber who set the temperature too high?
0 Replies
 
Ticomaya
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 07:38 pm
ican711nm wrote:
Ticomaya wrote:
And let's consider a hypothetical:

Vicky walks into a McDonalds (why not?), and before she orders her food, she walks to the bathroom to wash her hands. She turns on the hot water, cause she likes to wash her hands in hot water, but unbeknownst to Vicky, the hot water heater had just been replaced, and accidentally set for too hot a temperature. The scalding hot water (170 degrees, let's say) caused third degree burns on her hands and wrists. (You can substitute Vicky's 8 year old son for the victim if you want.)

Now, it shouldn't be necessary to place a "Caution! Hot!" sign on every hot water tap, and it's also true that normal people know it's hot, but they don't expect it to be THAT hot.

I figure that when it comes out of the spicket steaming (at 170 degrees that's what it will do), I better turn on some cold water to cool it down some. When the spickets are separate for hot and cold. I shut off steaming water and endure cold. But in either case, I do not think it fair or rational to hold either the owner or the installer responsible if I fail to take such precautions and burn my hands as a consequence.


However, it was the negligence of the installer that caused the injury. But for the negligence of setting the temperature so high, the burns would not have occurred. The defendant will, of course, claim the victim contributed to the injuries -- as you said -- by not checking the water, and it will be up to the jury to decide who is most at fault. And what if the victim was the young son?

As far as who is to blame, Vicky will sue both McD's and the installer. The jury will decide where the blame lies.
0 Replies
 
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 07:41 pm
Is there a useful parallel here between tort law and national security that ought to be considered?

Here's another hypothetical (I hope).

The government fails to give adequate warning to vacate the Sears Tower in Chicago before it's hit by an airliner piloted by terrorists. Further suppose that failure is proven due to Homeland Security and/or NSA incompetence.

Ought families of deceased caused by that hit be entitled to sue the government for failure to warn that the building is about to get too hot?

Let's modify that hypothetical a little.

Suppose both Homeland Security and NSA did their jobs competently, but were knowingly denied by rules adopted by Congress the ability to do what they had to do to give adequate warning.

Ought families of deceased caused by that hit be entitled to sue the government for knowingly denying Homeland Security and NSA the ability to do what they had to do to give adequate warning?
0 Replies
 
Ticomaya
 
  1  
Reply Tue 14 Feb, 2006 08:13 pm
As you know, anybody can sue anybody for anything. Whether they will recover is an entirely different matter.

The four elements of the tort of negligence are duty, breach, causation (injury), and damages. Without a duty, there is no negligence. Generally the government does not owe a duty to individuals, absent some special relationship or specific promise of protection. Thus, the government does not generally owe you a duty to protect you, unless it has promised protection, or in some other way established a duty to protect.

In addition, the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) provides the federal government with limited waiver of sovereign immunity, but there are exemptions, including "discretionary functions," which is very broad. Thus, government is often immune from liability while private persons would not be.

Quote:
(a) Any claim based upon an act or omission of an employee of the Government, exercising due care, in the execution of a statute or regulation, whether or not such statute or regulation be valid, or based upon the exercise or performance or the failure to exercise or perform a discretionary function or duty on the part of a federal agency or an employee of the Government, whether or not the discretion involved be abused.


If the government exercises its discretion and fails to give the warning, the above exemption would arguably apply to insulate the government from liability. States have similar Tort Claims Acts.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Wed 15 Feb, 2006 09:12 am
Speaking from experience working liability claims, I agree with Tico's take on what is. The lady burned by too hot water at McDonalds would certainly claim damages. As an adjuster I would hope to settle before it went to court. If representing McDonalds insuror, we would no doubt offer a nice settlement and then go after somebody else - the plumber and/or the water heater manufacturer, etc. to recoup the settlement costs.

Our rule of thumb is that the business owner has the duty--it's on Tico's list--to take very good care of people they invite to the place of business. There is also an unwritten rule that mitigates damages if the defendent could not be reasonably expected to know that a hazard existed. A normally docile dog gets one bite, for instance, before the owner will be judged to be negligent for keeping a viscious dog.

The question before us re tort reform, however, is whether some sort of cap can legitimately be put on general or product liability damages when the victim clearly did not exercise due diligence to avoid injury and especially when the victim demonstrated real stupidity without which no injury would have occurred.

And in cases where gross negligence/incompetence is not indicated, when patients accept risks or are advised of known and potential hazards, can't we do something to mitigate medical malpractice and suits against pharmaceutical companies that seem to be totally out of control? This is costing all of us huge additional costs, I think is discouraging development of new drugs, and I know is driving some physicians out of medicine altogether.

I agree with Tico and others that willful and deliberate negligence that causes injury or death must be severely punished. But surely we can come up with better laws that allow business to operate without fear of lawsuit in just doing day to day operations.

What about loser pays? Would this help? Or create worse inequities?
0 Replies
 
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Wed 15 Feb, 2006 11:29 am
I think it wrong to compensate plaintiffs for injuries they received because of a mistake or mistakes the plaintiff should have known not to make, and without which the accident would not have occurred. Currently in such cases, responsibility has been assigned as a percentage by the courts to the sued defendants. If the injury would not have occurred had the plaintiff not made its mistake, assigning a percentage blame more than zero to defendants is wrong and that wrong should be corrected by legislation.

Cases have occurred wherein a plaintiff, without whose mistake the accident would not have occurred, is awarded a large enough multi-million dollar compensation for the accident, in order that a defendant, assigned less than 50% of the responsibility for the accident and known to have "deep enough pockets," was required to pay a few million and not able to declare bankruptcy to escape that requirement. That kind of stuff must be stopped to preserve real justice.
0 Replies
 
okie
 
  1  
Reply Wed 15 Feb, 2006 02:15 pm
ican711nm wrote:
Is there a useful parallel here between tort law and national security that ought to be considered?

Here's another hypothetical (I hope).

The government fails to give adequate warning to vacate the Sears Tower in Chicago before it's hit by an airliner piloted by terrorists. Further suppose that failure is proven due to Homeland Security and/or NSA incompetence.

Ought families of deceased caused by that hit be entitled to sue the government for failure to warn that the building is about to get too hot?

Let's modify that hypothetical a little.

Suppose both Homeland Security and NSA did their jobs competently, but were knowingly denied by rules adopted by Congress the ability to do what they had to do to give adequate warning.

Ought families of deceased caused by that hit be entitled to sue the government for knowingly denying Homeland Security and NSA the ability to do what they had to do to give adequate warning?


I would amend your last statement so that maybe the families should sue the Democrats in Congress because they would most likely be the main culprits in hindering NSA from doing their jobs. Maybe, sue the congressmen themselves. Boy we could all have a field day for literally everything that goes on in this country!!!!
0 Replies
 
Cycloptichorn
 
  1  
Reply Wed 15 Feb, 2006 02:16 pm
I noted that you didn't respond to my post in the 'bush uniter or divider' thread, instead reverting to insulting the Democrats as your solution to every problem.

Cycloptichorn
0 Replies
 
 

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