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Sun 20 Apr, 2003 11:08 pm
Could the parents of James VI & I of England and Scotland be the Earl of Essex and Queen Elizabeth I of England? Either Elizabeth was sterile or a lesbian is unlikely, as was the probability that she was a virgin. She was unmarried; what else could she be called officially but a virgin. Both she and James had red hair, & were both political Protestants. James was raised royally, which would have been very expected for an unknown child of Liz. The most likely proof is that, if true, James followed his mother on the throne of England while allowing his mother to carry on her virginity schtick AND the dynastic gravy of uniting both countries under one monarch. It was all toooooo convenient and very much like the duplicitous Elizabeth.
Er - some major problems here, given that royal births were scrutinised and witnessed pretty closely. I think Mary Stuart would have had to be happy with the whole scheme, too - at least initially, before she lost her throne - highly unlikely, I would have thought.
James and Elizabeth WERE related of course, via Henry VII - do you think this might explain their similarity?
Are you suggesting Mary had no child, or that her baby was replaced by the putative child you suggest at some later stage?
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