Showing you facts from credible sources like the FDA, the CDC, fauci, etc. is not me arguing; it's me showing you valid information which you're being asked to comment on.
You know the sources are legitimate, and you know how to read. And you and I both know that that's why you have no intention of addressing any of it.
But on the off chance that you're going to address anything, why don't you start with this:
Why did the CDC claim that they were in possession of the virus, only to later admit that they didn't really have it, but only after being forced to respond to a Freedom of Information Act request?
The official CDC document, (dated July 21, 2021) entitled “CDC 2019-Novel Coronavirus (2019-nCoV) Real-Time RT-PCR Diagnostic Panel reads as follows:
Since no quantified virus isolates of the 2019-nCoV were available for CDC use at the time the test was developed [January 2020] and this study conducted, assays designed for detection of the 2019-nCoV RNA were tested with characterized stocks of in vitro transcribed full length RNA (N gene; GenBank accession: MN908947.2) of known titer (RNA copies/µL) spiked into a diluent consisting of a suspension of human A549 cells and viral transport medium (VTM) to mimic clinical specimen.
Compare the above statement to the CDC January 28th, 2020 advisory confirming the isolation of SARS-CoV-2:
On January 20, 2020, CDC received a clinical specimen collected from the first reported U.S. patient infected with SARS-CoV-2. CDC immediately placed the specimen into cell culture to grow a sufficient amount of virus for study.
Why were they being dishonest?