5
   

Einsteins special relativity nonsense

 
 
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:17 am
@maxdancona,
maxdancona wrote:

The point is that Newton's laws work in any of these cases.

I said I wouldn't repeat it again, but I'll haul off and do it anyway.

I agree with the claim, but it has no particular relevance to the issue under discussion. It is a total non sequitur.

That is not "the point' at all.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:21 am
@layman,
layman wrote:

maxdancona wrote:

The point is that Newton's laws work in any of these cases.

I said I wouldn't repeat it again, but I'll haul off and do it anyway.

I agree with the claim, but it has no particular relevance to the issue under discussion. It is a non sequitur.


The problem then is that we reach an impasse.

1) You are making claims about how acceleration is measured in your argument about SR.

2) The claims you are making about acceleration directly contradict Newton's laws. This is basic Physics that was well understood hundreds of years before Einstein. These same claims are the basis of your misunderstanding about Special Relativity.

3) If we can't agree on basic Physical laws from Newton about acceleration, then we can't possibly reach an understanding of how acceleration works in Special Relativity.

4) It is my continuing opinion that you have zero chance of understanding Einstein until you fully understand Newton. One is the basis for the other.

And so, we have reached an impasse.


0 Replies
 
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:21 am
@layman,
Is your claim that "if newton's laws are the same in every inertial frame, THEN you can never tell if you're moving?"

Yes, or no?

If you're unsure, then read the Feynman excerpt I (and you) posted. He addresses this question, and gives the correct answer.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:25 am
@layman,
You can tell you are moving compared to an inertial frame of reference assuming you have a way to compare your motion to something in that reference frame.

Newton defined motion mathematically. His exactly expresion is that V = dD/dt.

Taking out the calculus this basically means that to find if you are moving, you compare your distance from some object now, to your distance from the same object earlier and divide by time elapsed.

There is an abstraction here I am not sure if you are getting.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:29 am
@layman,
To answer your question directly, the mathematical way that I tell I am moving using Newton's laws.

1) Decide upon a frame of reference. This can mean choosing something that I decide is motionless, or just picking a motionless point.

2) Find out how much my displacement changes over time compared to this "motionless point" or frame of reverence.

3) Divide that by time elapsed.

And that gives me a value for V. if V = 0 I am motionless. If V doesn't equal 0 than I am moving.

The great thing about this is that all of the laws and experiments work no matter what frame of reference I chose in step #1.
0 Replies
 
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:32 am
@maxdancona,
Here's basically what I'm getting at, which I said long ago. It is true (as Feynman says it is) that you cannot determine if you're moving in a closed inertial environment by doing physical experiments alone. Same thing Galileo said. But there are always other ways to determine if you're moving.

Let's suppose you fall asleep at the station after you've boarded a train. When you wake up, you may be unsure if you ever left the station (if you are moving at a uniform speed on the train when you wake up).

But the question is easily resolved. Just open the curtain and look out the window.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:35 am
@layman,
That is exactly what I am saying.

By defining a frame of reference, you are setting a point (or object) that you define to be motionless. Then you are comparing your change in displacement to this fixed point to determine your motion.

In your train example, the assumption is that the Earth doesn't move. You have defined a fixed point, and a frame of reference.

Looking out the window is comparing how your location has changed (i.e. movement) with respect to the Earth. When you look out the window and decide the train isn't moving, you aren't comparing your motion to the Sun's barycenter.
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:44 am
@maxdancona,
maxdancona wrote:

That is exactly what I am saying.

By defining a frame of reference, you are setting a point (or object) that you define to be motionless. Then you are comparing your change in displacement to this fixed point to determine your motion.

In your train example, the assumption is that the Earth doesn't move. You have defined a fixed point, and a frame of reference.

Looking out the window is comparing how your location has changed (i.e. movement) with respect to the Earth.



Sure. But you incidentally expose the weakness of SR. You say:

[
Quote:
... that you define to be motionless.


In the physical world motion, or the lack thereof, is NOT determined by resort to a priori "definition."

But its that very (misguided) definition that causes all the problems in SR. Lets face it, when a variety of objects are all moving relative to each, they cannot ALL validly claim that they are "motionless." But SR nonetheless forces all of them to "say" that they are motionless. And then the innumerable "paradoxes" in SR begin.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:58 am
@layman,
You are confusing philosophical ideas of "truth" with science. Science is only concerned with theories that can be tested and confirmed by experiment or precise observation.

SR may have a "philosophical" weakness. Physicists don't care about that.

The fact is that Isaac Newton says that I can run experiments based in any inertial frame of reference. And any experiment you run will show that Newton's laws work the same. I have now demonstrated the mathematics work in several frames of reference.

Scientifically they are equivalent because they all can be confirmed experimentally. As to your notions of "correctness" that can't be shown experimentally... that isn't science.
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 11:58 am
@layman,
If a guy on a moving train says to himself something like: I remember accelerating and I therefore know I am moving relative to a guy standing by the tracks, so I'm going to conclude that it is my watch which has slowed down, not his, then what is SR's response to that? It's this:

BUZZ! ALERT! That thought is forbidden!!!! ERROR!!!

If he said that, he would in effect, be giving preference to the other's guy's frame of reference If that happens, the whole theory of SR falls apart.
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 12:00 pm
@maxdancona,
maxdancona wrote:

You are confusing philosophical ideas of "truth" with science. Science is only concerned with theories that can be tested and confirmed by experiment or precise observation.

SR may have a "philosophical" weakness. Physicists don't care about that.

The fact is that Isaac Newton says that I can run experiments based in any inertial frame of reference. And any experiment you run will show that Newton's laws work the same. I have now demonstrated the mathematics work in several frames of reference.

Scientifically they are equivalent because they all can be confirmed experimentally. As to your notions of "correctness" that can't be shown experimentally... that isn't science.



Yeah, right, eh? Tell it to Galileo, and Newton, who claimed to prove that the earth is actually orbiting the sun, rather than vice versa.
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 12:02 pm
@layman,
I'm taking off now. Think about it, and we can discuss this more later, if you care to.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 12:05 pm
@layman,
We are not talking about SR. This is basic Newtonian Physics.

1. You wake up on a very smooth train. You have no idea whether it is moving or not. I am clearly having you wake up because I want to take away your ability to compare your motion to the Earth (which is either moving or not moving... but in this case it doesn't matter).

2. You don't know if the train is moving or not. You also don't know which direction it is moving or not. You are sitting in a direction you call "forward" half of the other passengers are sitting in a direction you call "backwards".

3. You fell an acceleration of 2 m/s/s in the direction you call "backwards" (it is slightly pulling you forward in your seat).

Now there are thee explanations for this.

A. The train was stopped when you woke up, and the acceleration you felt was the train starting to move in the direction you call "backwards".

B. The train was already moving in the direction you call "backwards" when you woke up, and the acceleration you felt was the train going faster.

C. The train was already moving in the direction you call "forwards" when you woke up, and the acceleration you felt was the train going slower (putting on the brakes).

Without comparing himself to the Earth (i.e. by looking out the window), All experiments will give the same results whether A, B or C is true from the Earth frame of reference. In all three of these possibilities you will measure the exact same acceleration in the same direction. They are scientifically equivalent.

The case I am making is Isaac Newton. Just a heads up to where I am going with this... when you make a philosopical argument about "correct" or "really moving" I am going to ask you if the Earth is moving in this line of argument.
0 Replies
 
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 12:06 pm
@layman,
Quote:
Yeah, right, eh? Tell it to Galileo, and Newton, who claimed to prove that the earth is actually orbiting the sun, rather than vice versa.


Sure, I can answer this question when you answer the latest train question. They are related answers (hint: it is a measure of acceleration). Newton's laws certainly describe orbits.

I will wait until you get back.

justafool44
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 03:28 pm
@layman,
I stand corrected.
So because processes, cycles, rates of change, occur differently for different observers such as the guy in suspended animation compared to the guy not in suspended animation, what that reaffirms is that "Time" is but a concept of man, a imaginary tool that help him keep track of his activities.
So this fact makes it impossible for Relativists to claim that Time is a thing, and its somehow part of another concept, measurements of distance, (space) and is now able to exert force on planets to make them orbit instead of going straight ahead.
I know I know, they will insist that the planet "thinks" its still going straight ahead, but its just following a mathematical construct called a geodesic.
Makes perfect sense to the people in the big house who have forgotten their meds.
0 Replies
 
justafool44
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 03:30 pm
@maxdancona,
I ask you a simple question. You totally fail to provide a coherent answer, so your conclusion is that I am stupid?
Wow.
0 Replies
 
justafool44
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 03:41 pm
@layman,
And @maxdancona,
Both of you guys are arguing about absolutely NOTHING.
That's why you cant agree.
Before any other question is entertained, one of you guys need to address the elephant in the room.

Explain how an imaginery frame of reference could ever have any physical effect on matter.

If you dont know this, then you have nothing to argue about.

@maxdancona, seems to think that because I don't accept his irrational excuses, that I'm stupid.

But neither of you have an answer to my question, do you?

And the follow up question is " explain how a single beam of light Moving in a specific direction at a specific speed "c" (relative to who?) ... How it can be measured by anyone irrespective of their own speed, or even their direction, to STILL be "c"

No explanation ever. but Im stupid, right?




0 Replies
 
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 03:46 pm
@maxdancona,
Quote:
Without comparing himself to the Earth (i.e. by looking out the window), All experiments will give the same results whether A, B or C is true from the Earth frame of reference. In all three of these possibilities you will measure the exact same acceleration in the same direction. They are scientifically equivalent.


But they can't all be true at the same time, eh? They therefore are NOT equivalent as a practical matter. Your strong philosophical convictions are becoming more and more vociferous.

Anyone who says he "has no philosophy" has a philosophy. Anyone who says philosophy has no meaning is giving it a meaning.

You, despite all your protests, are simply revealing your own "philosophy of science. It called "instrumentalsim,"

Quote:
In philosophy of science and in epistemology, instrumentalism is a methodological view that ideas are useful instruments, and that the worth of an idea is based on how effective it is in explaining and predicting phenomena....There are multiple versions of instrumentalism. Instrumentalism is a variety of scientific anti-realism.

For Berkeley, a scientific theory does not state causes or explanations, but simply identifies perceived types of objects and traces their typical regularities.[9] Berkeley thus anticipated the basis of what Auguste Comte in the 1830s called positivism,[....Berkeley thus predated the insight that logical positivists—who originated in the late 1920s, but who, by the 1950s, had softened into logical empiricists—would be compelled to accept: theoretical terms in science do not always translate into observational terms.

Since the mind has virtually no power to know anything beyond direct sensory experience, Ernst Mach's early version of logical positivism (empirio-criticism) verged on idealism. It was alleged to even be a surreptitious solipsism, whereby all that exists is one's own mind.

By the 1950s, the verificationists had established philosophy of science as subdiscipline within academia's philosophy departments. By 1962, verificationists had asked and endeavored to answer seemingly all the great questions about scientific theory. Their discoveries showed that the idealized scientific worldview was naively mistaken. By then the leader of the legendary venture, Hempel raised the white flag that signaled verificationism's demise.

Widely read, Kuhn's 1962 thesis seemed to shatter logical empiricism, whose paradigmatic science was physics and which championed instrumentalism. Yet scientific realists, who were far more tenacious, responded by attacking Kuhn's thesis, Kuhn later indicated that his thesis had been so widely misunderstood that he himself was not a Kuhnian.

By rejecting all variants of positivism via its focus on sensations rather than realism, Karl Popper asserted his commitment to scientific realism, merely via the necessary uncertainty of his own falsificationism. Popper alleged that instrumentalism reduces basic science to what is merely applied science.[12] In his book "The fabric of reality", the British physicist David Deutsch followed Popper's critique of instrumentalism and argued that a scientific theory stripped of its explanatory content would be of strictly limited utility.


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Instrumentalism#:~:text=

As you can discern from this excerpt, every variant of instrumentalism has fallen short. Einstein, a realist, hated it and it's solipsistic undertones. As a very accomplished philosopher of science in his own right, he produced powerful critiques of instrumentalism. But, you it turns out, you are a wild-eyed instrumentalist who never got the message. You're the one making philosophical arguments in this thread, not me.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 04:13 pm
@layman,
As a Physicist, I don't care about philosophy. I only care about what theories can make predictions that can be confirmed by experiment or observation.

1. I have shown how Newton's laws work fine in any inertial frame with no contradictions. I have done this for two circumstances that you brought up (the rocket and the train).

2. I have also pointed out the contradiction in your line of thinking ... namely that sometimes you say the Earth is moving other times you act as if the Earth is not moving (as in your thinking about trains) sometimes you suggest that the CMB is not moving and sometimes it is the Sun barycenter that isn't moving

You jump around from "preferred" frame to "preferred" frame more than I do...

And yet you insist that only one can be correct
layman
 
  1  
Sat 14 Mar, 2020 04:19 pm
@layman,
Karl Popper wrote:
My reply to instrumentalism consists in showing that there are profound differences between "pure" theories and technological computation rules, and that instrumentalism can give a perfect description of these rules but is quite unable to account for the difference between them and the theories".


This is a point I made earlier, Max, and it applies to you in spades.
0 Replies
 
 

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