Finn d'Abuzz wrote:Typically glib Joe, but what the hell does it mean? Do try to argue something of substance for a change.
If you can't understand references to evolution or statistics then I'm afraid I can't help you. It is beyond my means to augment your deficient education at this point in your life.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:And you are able, I suppose, to to argue against the extensive and continuous nature of slave (intentional or otherwise) breeding?
Of course I am. I will issue you the same challenge that I issued to
Foxfyre: quote me one reputable history of American slavery that makes this claim.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:Considering that there are any number of Americans alive today who can trace their lineage to actual slaves, it is difficult to see how the scale of "regression to mean" applies.
Because regression to the mean works over the course of time. Since we are about seven generations removed from slavery, there has been about seven generations-worth of regression to the mean. Even if there was any kind of continuous and extensive selective breeding of slaves going on (which, as I have noted before, is a dubious proposition at best), it is highly unlikely that
anything today can be explained by that selective breeding due to its effects being dissipated over time.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:At the risk of redundancy...glib Joe but your point is? Do you mean to suggest that this was not the way that slaves were propagated? Just what do you mean to suggest? Give us the Haute Couture analysis...please.
Show me the evidence of selective breeding on a wide scale.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:Duh? Let me attempt to 'splain for you: American slaver owners may not have had eugenic intentions, but that doesn't mean that similar results were produced through different intentions.
Show me the evidence.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:Predictably, you have pounced upon the argument you are inclined to pursue. "Not all slaves were culled by hard field work." Brilliant observation Joe. Now please explain how and when I asserted otherwise.
Your theory does not make any sense otherwise. If there was no selective breeding going on
intentionally (which is what you seem to be asserting), then the selective breeding must have been accomplished through some kind of evolutionary means. Presumably, there are two primary means of accomplishing this: (1) when superior specimens breed more successfully; or (2) when superior specimens survive in greater numbers. Without any kind of intervention on the part of the slave owners, it is unlikely that the first condition applied. So there must be some kind of demographic force behind this process in order to make your thesis work. Either the superior slaves survived the rigors of slavery (your phrase) more successfully, and thus were the only ones left to breed, or else your theory has no explanatory force. Which is it?
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:Many slaves did work in the Big House, but if you knew something of the history of the time you would know that the vast majority of "house niggers" were the illegitimate children of slave owners or their intended conquests. This being the case, I refer you to my prior statement regarding the two primary means for propagating slaves.
Your prior statement is about as reliable as
Foxfyre's reference to her "history books."
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:That male slaves physically capable of enduring the hardships of slavery were most likely to propagate is simple logic. I suppose you are of the opinion that slavery wasn't all that bad and the meek, mild and nebbish Africans had as much of a shot as passing along their genes as the "Black Buck."
So that
is your position.
But, as I pointed out before, the population of slaves in America rose rapidly, despite the undeniably wretched conditions under which many of them lived. In 1790, the black population in America totalled around 760,000. By 1860, that number had increased to 4.4 million (
source). And that increase was due almost entirely to domestic demographic factors: the international slave trade ceased at the turn of the 19th century and voluntary black immigration was insignificant. Clearly, although slavery was not the optimal life choice, it was good enough to sustain this rapid population growth.
Now, in order to sustain your thesis, you would need to show that it was only the
superior blacks who drove this population explosion over the course of 70 years. Frankly, I don't think you can do it, but I'd be curious to see you try.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:Please direct us all to a post wherein I have advanced the notion that African Americans, understandably, dominate every major sport today. Try as you might, you will find the contrary. Sorry Joe, but you really need to read the postings before you fire off with your "Iconic Liberal" replies.
Please read what I write before you fire off your iconically lame replies. I wrote: "
Using your reasoning, we should expect that the grandsons and great-grandsons of Polish meatpackers and Croatian steelworkers would be dominating every major sport today." Note: I never said that you had stated anything about black dominance in sports, I merely noted the foreseeable consequences of using your flawed reasoning.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:I see no need to restate my point. Try harder to fathom it Joe.I don't know precisely when you became an "iconic Liberal," only that in A2K you are one. Your position on this subject serves as proof enough.
I leave it to others to decide what sort of icon I've become.
Finn d'Abuzz wrote:Talk is cheap.
And it remains your sole stock in trade.