@Miller,
The Discussion title refers to a British politician who wanted Israel relocated, while the first post refers more specifically to that British politician apparently having been suspended by their political party.
Unfortunately, it is not only such individual politicians who do not recognize the land of Israel as the ancestral homeland of the Jewish people, but political parties such as the U.S. Democratic Party.
The United Nations has the same policy. Otherwise how could the United Nations (and thus consequentially also U.N. Courts) accuse Israel/the Jewish people, of illegally-occupying the Jewish peoples' own ancestral-homeland of Israel, and instead refer to the land as "Palestine".
“Jew”=citizen of “Judah” - Judaism is both an ethnicity as well as a religion.
Israel is Re-established within the Jewish ancestral homeland. Internationally-recognized history shows that the last indigenous sovereign state in the land of Israel (Roman-imposed name “Palestine”), prior to the RE-establishment of Israel in 1948, was the post-Biblical Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom. It included what is now referred to as the “West Bank”, Gaza, and Golan Heights. Capital (what is now East) Jerusalem / “Old City”; between 110 BCE / 754 BH and 63 BCE / 706 BH - Map:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/4/4b/Hasmonean_kingdom.jpg
The Jewish people are indigenous to their ancestral homeland of Israel, with unbroken presence there from Biblical times:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographic_history_of_Palestine_(region)
From where does the name "Palestine" come?
From the region smaller than the land of Israel in which the Philistines lived.
As there is no "P" in Arabic, in Arabic the same name "Palestine" is pronounced "Philistine" ("Filistine").
There has never been an indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state in the land of Israel upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to any part of Israel. The name “Palestine” is the Roman-imposed rename of Israel / Judah, a name later resurrected for the British Mandate. Both Roman and British powers were foreign imperial rule. The name “Palestine” was used by the Romans to attempt to negate Israel / Judah as names for the land. Today the “Palestinian” Arabs and their primarily anti-Semitic supporters, use the name “Palestine” for the same purpose.
The Arabs willingly accepted “Palestine” as the Roman-imposed rename of Israel / Judah. Why? Because their propaganda would not be as effective if they accused the Jews of stealing “Judah”.
Who are the "Palestinians"?
The “Palestinian Arabs” dropped the name “Arab” because they do not want you to understand they mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate, to take advantage of higher wages through Jewish returnee-exiles:
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“[...] most Arabs in British Mandate Palestine were migrant workers and descendants of the 1832-1947 wave of Arab/Muslim immigration from Egypt, the Sudan, Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Yemen, Libya, North Africa, Bosnia, India, Afghanistan, etc. While the British Mandate encouraged Arab immigration, it blocked Jewish immigration.”
Extract source:
http://theettingerreport.com/arab-migration-shaped-palestinian-society/
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During the British Mandate both Arabs and Jews could become "Palestinian" citizens. Today the Media backdate the name "Palestinian" to when those people were called Arabs.
The Amended Palestinian National Charter (1968) - English, Article 5 defines the “Palestinians” as Arab:
[Note: The 1964 version has the equivalent article numbered as 6.]
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Article 5:
'The Palestinians are those Arab nationals [...]'
Extract source:
http://ecf.org.il/media_items/677
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[Just to be clear: The Arabs are a noble people who have produced famous musicians and mathematicians.]
