The question is does it matter. If you really know "the economic theory" do you accept that if the long term revenue for the men is greater (over at least a 4 year period) that the salaries for men should be greater?
You all are starting with a non-economic principal, and then you are cherry-picking whatever numbers you can find to support your political position.
The basic economic numbers are pretty straightforward. Revenue from men over any significant period of time is much greater then revenue from women.