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Looking for a grammar nazi - double negatives

 
 
gflat
 
Reply Mon 16 Nov, 2015 11:51 pm
A friend and I are having a discussion about a specific double negative word combination. The sentence in question is as follows.

"My mother is not rich, but I have never not had food to eat, shoes on my feet, or clothes to wear."

The discussion is centered around the use of the combination "have never not had". I have been unable to find that specific combination of words in a grammar discussion.

I know "have always had" would generally be a more grammatically accepted wording (especially with the use of "or" following "never", though "or" would have to be replaced with "and" with the use of "have always had").

However, I feel that "have never not had" makes a stronger point and is at least allowable per poetic license. If I were to speak the sentence, I would add emphasis to "not" for greater effect. He only posts links to basic double negative examples, such as "don't have no", etc., to support his argument.

I'm looking for opinions from people who live grammar and the grammar nazi life. Tenses?
 
layman
 
  4  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 12:20 am
@gflat,
I can't figure out what your question is. You refer to your friend's argument, but you don't say what it is, or how you differ. My opinion would be:

1. It's not a "double negative" in the ungrammatical sense.
2. The phrasing is awkward and uncommon, but grammatically correct, as far as I can see.

Most people would just say never been without (rather than "not had").

The Brits, perhaps thinking they are engaging in understatement, while actually being inconcise and somewhat obscure, will often use stilted prhases like "not without" to mean "has."

"He is not without food" meaning he has food. But that's not enough for them. Next thing they're throwing another unnecessary world in like "altogether." "He is not altogether without food" suggesting that what he does have may be a meager supply.
layman
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 12:58 am
@layman,
Quote:
Next thing they're throwing another unnecessary world in like "altogether." "He is not altogether without food" suggesting that what he does have may be a meager supply.


I should have added that they are probably more likely to phrase it that way if they are referring to someone who has a 15-year supply of canned goods stored all over his house than if they were referring to someone who only had a few slices of bread.
roger
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 01:02 am
@layman,
I'd call that possible, but less likely.
layman
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 01:09 am
@roger,
Quote:
I'd call that possible, but less likely.


You may be right, Rog, I don't really know. I aint no damn limey. But they do love understatement, even to the point of extreme hyperbole.

It's like us when we assign the nickname of "Tiny" to a guy who weighs 350 pounds.
0 Replies
 
layman
 
  0  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 01:20 am
@layman,
For that matter, there's nothing grammatically wrong with the sentence:

"I don't have no shoes." Read literally, it's just a way of saying "I have *some* shoes."

The problem arises when people are trying to say (their intended meaning is) "I have no shoes" or "I don't have any shoes."

Someone says to me (erroneously) "You have no shoes." How do I deny it?

Well, obviously, I just say "I don't have no shoes."
0 Replies
 
FBM
 
  2  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 01:26 am
@gflat,
It's a non-standard useage that seems be becoming more common recently. It's used for emphasis. It is much more emphatic to say "I have never not had food to eat" than to say "I always have food to eat," especially when the word "not" is strongly emphasized.
0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 01:56 am
It's not what is usually meant by " double negative" which is two negatives which are meant to have the sme sense as a single negative, like the Stones- "I can't get no satisfction", which MEANS "I can't get satisfaction. Thee are languages. Ike Spanish which regularly have two part negative as stsndar' but in english it's not stndr' but mosty native spanissh speakers or some african-americn speakers or songwriters. In the exsmple, it's two negatives which in fact mean a positive, which is logicaly corrct but te direct antithesis of a double negative, so you won't find that usage in any list of double negatives.
0 Replies
 
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 02:14 am
@gflat,
Your request for a "Grammar Nazi" is a bit dated. Concepts of English grammar have shifted from a prescriptive mode 'utilized to teach the working classes to talk properly' , to a descriptive mode in which equal weight can be given to dialectical variations such as the double negative (common in other languages as already noted above).
Language performance is like 'dress codes'. There are appropriate and inappropriate modes according to social context That is really all that can be said provided that meaning is clear.
0 Replies
 
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 02:54 am
@gflat,
I should perhaps als have mentioned that 'real time performance' in which spoken statements are constructed in the moment for a particular audience, should be considered differently to written performance constructed within a context allowing for revision for a more general audience. So, as soon as you put a sample up for discussion, you have lost the original context in which the sample was produced. That is why there tends to be a free- for-all of responses on discussion forums.

0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 04:02 am
I think it's misleading to call that a double negative. If someone says: "Give me a cigarette," and their interlocutor responds "I ain't got none." That's a double negative--the second person means they have none. The prohibition against double negatives is predicated on a claim that logically, saying "I ain't got none" is the equivalent of having some. In this particular case, saying "I have never not had . . ." has no such putative logical inconsistency--the number of time when i have not had enough to eat is none, therefore, i have never not had enough food to eat.
layman
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 08:40 am
@Setanta,
Yeah, that's what I done said, long-ass time back, eh?
0 Replies
 
neologist
 
  2  
Reply Tue 17 Nov, 2015 07:12 pm
@layman,
"Never been without" sounds good.
Can't think of nothin gooder.
0 Replies
 
gflat
 
  1  
Reply Wed 18 Nov, 2015 09:01 pm
@everyone Wink

You've all pretty well denoted my side of the argument, and have also raised some interesting points (analysis of something spoken in the moment loses its spontaneity, etc.).

He likes to poke and did so in gest, but I felt that the sentence was not grammatically incorrect, so challenged him to define his argument. He could only reply with posts regarding basic double negatives, which did not satisfy my challenge. What you all (y'all in my native tongue, though I rarely write in southern colloquialisms) have commented is in line with my way of thinking.

And by grammar nazi, I meant no offense. I'm an engineer, but pride myself in using correct grammar in writing. I find that many engineers are quite lacking in this department. I don't find myself correcting other people's grammar, unless I am speaking with someone who actively and admittedly wants to improve their grammar, but do get 'brain pain' when I hear certain misuses.

My English grammar learnings were in excess of two decades ago. Because it was a pairing of words I find myself using more frequently, I wanted to gain an understanding of how it is perceived by those who are well versed in grammar across a broad range of learning and social experience. I can honestly say that I am quite satisfied. Thank you all.
0 Replies
 
Tes yeux noirs
 
  1  
Reply Thu 19 Nov, 2015 01:40 am
@layman,
Quote:
The Brits, perhaps thinking they are engaging in understatement, while actually being inconcise and somewhat obscure,

Which "Brits" do you mean? Posh ones from about 1955? Sure sounds that way. Lots of different registers and varieties of expression in British English, as in all varieties. Believe me, I know, I've worked there.
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Thu 19 Nov, 2015 02:26 am
@Tes yeux noirs,

Quite an interesting set of replies on this thread, well done to all.
You seem to have quite a reasonable grasp of the language.
InfraBlue
 
  1  
Reply Thu 19 Nov, 2015 10:23 am
@layman,
Quote:
The Brits, perhaps thinking they are engaging in understatement, while actually being inconcise and somewhat obscure, will often use stilted prhases like "not without" to mean "has."

"He is not without food" meaning he has food. But that's not enough for them. Next thing they're throwing another unnecessary world in like "altogether." "He is not altogether without food" suggesting that what he does have may be a meager supply.


HA!
farmerman
 
  2  
Reply Sat 21 Nov, 2015 05:30 am
@McTag,
Or perhaps, you mean that "they do not have an unreasonably limited grasp of the language"

I luvta start me day wi a smile

0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 Nov, 2015 08:24 am
@InfraBlue,

That is actually bollocks.

Also, there is a difference between "We have not ever been without food" and "We've always had enough to eat."
farmerman
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 Nov, 2015 10:54 am
@McTag,
It all goes to the precision within language
0 Replies
 
 

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