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I came back to the program for three years.

 
 
SMickey
 
Reply Thu 5 Feb, 2015 07:54 am
I've got a radio program I enjoy listening to.
Someone asked me how long I had listened to it and I said,
"I came back to the program after three years.'

My intention was :
'I stopped listening to it three years ago, and now I'm beginning to listen to it again.'

Would this make sense if I had told,
'I came back to the program for three years.'

1. I came back to the program AFTER three years.
2. I came back to the program FOR three years.

Put simply, under the context, would both of them make sense? Either or none?

My buddy says the second one hardly makes sense but he's not sure either.
Could you please comment?

Thanks.
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 579 • Replies: 9
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ehBeth
  Selected Answer
 
  2  
Reply Thu 5 Feb, 2015 08:43 am
@SMickey,
#1 works given the context.

#2 means something completely different.
0 Replies
 
ehBeth
 
  1  
Reply Thu 5 Feb, 2015 08:44 am
@SMickey,
SMickey wrote:

Would this make sense if I had told,



said, not told


Would this make sense if I had said,
dalehileman
 
  0  
Reply Thu 5 Feb, 2015 11:35 am
@SMickey,
Would this make sense if I had told,
Quote:
'I came back to the program for three years.'
No. This means that you had quit after participating for an unspecified period and now have returned, intending to stay 3 years
0 Replies
 
SMickey
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Feb, 2015 12:04 pm
@ehBeth,
Oh, I thought say and tell are almost interchangable.

I need to do my own research on how to distinguish them.
Thank you so much for correcting it.
0 Replies
 
imawonderingwhy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 20 Feb, 2015 10:34 am
@SMickey,
SMickey: Would this make sense if I had told,

Oh, I thought say and tell are almost interchangable.

----------------------------

'almost' is the operative word. In this case they would be/would have been had you added an object pronoun, SMickey.


They would be here had you added an object pronoun, SMickey.

Would this make sense if I had told him/her/them?

Would this make sense if I had said to him/her/them?
SMickey
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 Feb, 2015 03:49 am
@imawonderingwhy,
The absence of an object pronoun made 'If I had told' awkward.
With an object pronoun, like 'told him or told her', the expression I used
wouldn't have sounded that weird. Right?

Thanks for your tip.
It's very helpful.
0 Replies
 
FBM
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 Feb, 2015 04:20 am
That's what she said (o)
That's what she said to him. (o)
That's what she told him. (o)
That's what she told. (x)
SMickey
 
  2  
Reply Sun 22 Feb, 2015 01:54 pm
@FBM,
Thanks FBM.

I won't forget what you told me.
What you said to me would be so helpful to those who learn English.
FBM
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 Feb, 2015 03:44 pm
@SMickey,
Hope so. Cheers, SMickey.
0 Replies
 
 

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