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Tue 3 Feb, 2015 12:58 am
If so, do you recognize it according to grammatical rule or based on logical judgement?
Context:
Two high-profile incidents of Patton striking subordinates during the Sicily campaign attracted national controversy following the end of the campaign. On August 3, 1943, Patton slapped and verbally abused Private Charles H. Kuhl at an evacuation hospital in Nicosia after he had been found to suffer from "battle fatigue".[112] On August 10, Patton slapped Private Paul G. Bennett under similar circumstances.[112] Ordering both soldiers back to the front lines,[113] Patton railed against cowardice and issued orders to his commanders to discipline any soldier making similar complaints.[114]
@oristarA,
Yes. The context suggests no other explanation is appropriate.
But strictly grammatically, "he" could refer to either man.
To avoid this (in cases where the context does not make it clear) we would normally write "...after he, Kuhl, had been found to suffer from...".
Okay?
@McTag,
Thanks.
Without McTag, we wonder where A2K will be going.
@oristarA,
You're kidding me. I know Contrex is the favourite.
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