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Sun 1 Feb, 2015 01:48 am
Does "if the varying individual did not actually transmit to its offspring its newly-acquired character, it would undoubtedly transmit to them, as
long as the existing conditions remained the same" mean " if the varying individual did not actually transmit to its offspring its newly-acquired character (in the past), it would undoubtedly eventually transmit to them, as long as the existing conditions remained the same"?
Context:
It should not, however, be overlooked that certain rather strongly
marked variations, which no one would rank as mere individual
differences, frequently recur owing to a similar organisation being
similarly acted on-- of which fact numerous instances could be
given with our domestic productions. In such cases, if the varying
individual did not actually transmit to its offspring its newly-
acquired character, it would undoubtedly transmit to them, as
long as the existing conditions remained the same, a still stronger
tendency to vary in the same manner. There can also be little
@oristarA,
Well, it seems no one would like to answer this question?
@oristarA,
Yes, but not exactly. The text says that it would transmit "a still stronger
tendency to vary in the same manner. "
So eventually, presumably, the resulting conditions/characteristics would be the same, for the next (or subsequent?) generation/s.