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Should "none such exist" be "none such exists"?

 
 
Sun 23 Jun, 2013 07:44 pm

Context:
For Kant there are four antinomies[citation needed], connected with:

1.the limitation of the universe in respect of space and time,
2.the theory that the whole consists of indivisible atoms (whereas, in fact, none such exist),
3.the problem of free will in relation to universal causality
4.the existence of a necessary being
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Type: Question • Score: 4 • Views: 3,830 • Replies: 4
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View best answer, chosen by oristarA
contrex
 
  2  
Mon 24 Jun, 2013 09:54 am
@oristarA,
atoms -- exist
dalehileman
 
  0  
Mon 24 Jun, 2013 11:33 am
@contrex,
Con I'm not so sure about that: "None" means "no one"; so no one such exists
contrex
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  4  
Mon 24 Jun, 2013 12:42 pm
@dalehileman,
dalehileman wrote:

Con I'm not so sure about that: "None" means "no one"; so no one such exists


It doesn't. None means ... none. "None such" is a somewhat old fashioned phrase; I asked for replies to my question, but none have come.

"None" can be singular or plural, but many people incorrectly believe it can only be singular.

"None" can mean roughly “not one” and be followed by a singular verb. It also takes a singular verb when followed by a mass noun: None of the water is polluted.

Sometimes "none" means roughly “not any”, and in such cases, "none" can take a plural verb, and it often sounds more natural.

I talked to the boys, and none of them are coming to the party.

You may be chided by the uninformed when you follow "none" with a plural verb, but don’t be afraid to do so if your sentence calls for it.

JTT
 
  1  
Mon 24 Jun, 2013 07:39 pm
@contrex,
Excellent posting, Contrex; very informative and accurate.
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