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before we have settled as well as we can, the philosophical question?

 
 
Reply Sun 19 May, 2013 09:18 am
Does "before we have settled as well as we can, the philosophical question" mean "before we have settled the philosophical question and before we can settle the philosophical question"?

Context:
It is there fore useless to appeal to experience before we have settled as well as we can, the philosophical question.
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Type: Question • Score: 4 • Views: 601 • Replies: 4
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View best answer, chosen by oristarA
dalehileman
 
  1  
Reply Sun 19 May, 2013 11:33 am
@oristarA,
That's a pretty deep q Ori, and I continue to be impressed by by your intrepid tenacity and determination as an esl

Apparently the implication is that the phil q will remain unsettled but that we have to approximate a settlement before appealing to experience

Incidentally it's "therefore"
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InfraBlue
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  2  
Reply Sun 19 May, 2013 12:51 pm
@oristarA,
It means, "before we have settled the philosophical question to the best of our ability."
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contrex
 
  2  
Reply Sun 19 May, 2013 01:32 pm
Note: 'therefore' is one word.

(1) Original sentence: (Note - I believe it would be better and clearer with a comma after 'settled')
It is therefore useless to appeal to experience before we have settled, as well as we can, the philosophical question.


(2) Just move "as well as we can" to the end and remove commas:

It is therefore useless to appeal to experience before we have settled the philosophical question as well as we can.

In my opinion, "as well as we can" can and should be removed. Presumably "we" apply as much diligence to settling philosophical questions as is necessary. Lazy writing.

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oristarA
 
  1  
Reply Sun 19 May, 2013 06:52 pm
Thank you all.
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