Scrat wrote:If you believe differently, offer me evidence of other UN resolutions that were similarly written and show that the effective treatment was different.
I can't do that, just like you can't - neither of us apparently is a legal expert. You'd have to ask Dagmaranka, who
is, and who wrote, last year, that "all the years i have studied international law were a waste of time" if the resolution can indeed suddenly be interpreted the way you suggest now again. Or perhaps we can ask Joefromchicago ...
The only thing I
would be able to do (tho I dont much feel like spending the time on it, to be honest), is find you the opinions of government and UN officials and legal experts who refuted Bush the right to interpret the resolution in the way you propose now. Just like the only thing
you have are the opinions of politicians and legal experts you agree with who say his interpretation
was justified.
Scrat wrote:That way you could at least offer me a precedent for the notion that when a UN resolution reads that it grants authority to member states to take action
There's the rub. The resolution didnt specify
what action, for one. At the time 1441 was drafted, attempts to make it include an automated resort to military action, war, etc, if provisions were not complied with, were thrown out, as Frank points out. So instead there is a call to "all necessary means" ... well, what "means"
were "necessary" to make Iraq comply? On that alone, there was a serious difference of opinion. Bush said
war was necessary, invasion, and right now, too. Other Member States did
not think those means were necessary to make Iraq comply with the resolutions, at all. And if there is a difference of opinion on what the "necessary means" were that the resolution called for, who else should decide
but the authors of the resolution - ie, the UN member states?
On a related point, note that the ceasefire, according to the text of the resolution, was "based on acceptance by Iraq of the provisions of that resolution". Problem here is that previously, Iraq had been shown to be in violation of those provisions, but that right now, it had actually let the weapons inspectors back in and no evidence that there were
still weapons forbidden by the resolutions there had been found yet. Bush was basically proposing to go to war without delay over a violation that had been registered in the past, even though Iraq was now actually moving to comply and there was no actual evidence yet that he was
still in violation. Most other Member States unsurprisingly disagreed with that logic, so basically, you had a majority in the Council that
did feel Iraq was accepting the provisions - or at least sufficiently enough to warrant the process of implementing it more time.
Scrat wrote:Of course, my point seems to square with the evidence, while yours suggests that we can't really take the evidence to mean what it (again) clearly reads in English.
(And yes, I love that word "clearly".)
You seem to love the occasional resort to playground logic, too <shakes head>. "We disagree. But of course, I am clearly right, and you're just clearly wrong!". <sighs>
Anyway, if that's how it is, in MY opinion, of course, it is according to
you that "we can't really take the evidence to mean what it clearly reads in English".
I mean - listen. Here's a
UN resolution that authorized the
UN Member States to use whatever (unspecified) means were necessary to make Iraq comply. And here's the
UN member states thinking, in overwhelming majority, that in order to make Iraq comply, the necessary means in question were renewed weapons inspections and pressure - NOT outright war and invasion. What's unclear about that?
Basically, you're saying that if a UN resolution authorizes its member states to use unspecified necessary means, any one or two single states can decide that, hey, according to them, WAR is necessary!
Imagine those one or two states do not include the US ... I would be pretty damn sure you would be arguing the exact opposite of what you're arguing now. That's the difference between us.