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If "possible", but not "probable", is used here, does the meaning keep the same?

 
 
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Sun 3 Jun, 2012 05:15 pm
@MontereyJack,
Quote:
JTT, I think Infra is onto something here--you really are being prescriptivist on this, and not looking at how people do in fact use these words.


With all due respect, MJ. Do you think that because you two have thought about this for a few days and decided where 'probable' lands, that this, one, makes me prescriptive, and more importantly, two, that you are accurate?

Infra simply doesn't understand the difference between prescriptive and descriptive. But note which one he hurls as an epithet.

"... Hitherto this information has been based on native-speaker intuition. However, native speakers rarely have accurate perceptions of these differences."

While The Longman Grammar of Written and Spoken English was directly addressing usage frequency, this also holds true for how language structure is used. One only has to look at the peeves threads and the various pieces of advice given to ESLs to see that native speakers don't well understand how language works.

If Infra actually had something, don't you expect that you would have seen more than his last response?

As to my being prescriptive. That was/is impossible. It's certainly possible that I could have been wrong in my description, but I was not stating that people, users of the language, must or should follow anything. I am attempting to describe the range of certainty covered by epistemic modals.

I described how I believe, after a quarter century of study and teaching, how to best help ESLs understand and use English modal verbs. Could I be wrong in my analysis? Most assuredly I can. That's why I said I appreciated you input. And I still do.

Quote:
I disagreed with you on your quantification of probable as "above 50%", saying I would use a higher probability, and Infra wants a higher probability than I do. Which is in fact indicative that the word has a highly variable sense, dependent on the individual user.


You are confused here, MJ. Let me try to explain. Yes, the semi-modals 'probably' and 'likely' [and the modal 'should'] have a "highly variable sense".
For any given and the same situation, one person could hold a 51% certainty, another a 67% certainty and another an 85% certainty. Of course we don't think of them that way, in a numerical sense; the numbers are only illustrative that these words cover a range of certainty.

If those same three people heard some more info specific to the topic/situation in question, we could find that their positions had varied. They could now hold a weaker sense of probable or an even stronger one. Or one or all might be raised to an "almost certainly/must", or we might even see a drop into the 'may' or 'might' range.

You'll agree that some word, and its attendant helpers, has to cover every portion of the range of certainty. Helpers, such as intonation [eg. prrrrobably] or a tilt of the head are used to show greater doubt and these could be seen in those who hold in the low 50 percentile range.

We agree that 'probable' has a highly variable sense. From above 50% to a range that becomes more of "a given", which is kind of what the definition of 'must' is - "based on the facts available to me at this time, I can't see any option but blah blah blah".

'probable' means a greater chance than not. 50+ percent is the starting point that fits that description. Where it begins is not in dispute. Where it ends is a matter of greater dispute.

Quote:
I repeat, I don't think people usually are computing finite probabilities in their heads when they use the term, nor in most cases is there any way they could actually compute any mathematical probability at all. They are making a rough guess, or perhaps an educated guess as to likelihoods, and using that to choose vocabulary, but it ain"t "83%", or even "51%".


I thought we put that point to rest, MJ. We agree. But just because people don't think in that fashion doesn't mean that there isn't a sense of probability.

Quote:
I'll provide a concrete example, where we can in fact come up with something like a moderately precise probability: US presidential elections (and DO NOT go off on a war crimes tangent here), as a case where we do have some numbers and can hypotesize with a fair amount of certainty about others, and where people with other electoral systems will still understand ours.


That was a cheap shot, but no problem.

Quote:
If Obama's poll numbers were 51% and Romney's 49%, then you would presumably say "Obama will probably be re-elected", since he is above 50%, as has been your criterion. You would be alone in your certainty, and alone in your vocabulary choice.


This isn't a cheap shot. You are badly confused, MJ. Do you consider that one set of poll numbers is enough to sway the minds of every voter. Obama's 51% poll number isn't the only thing that would make up an individual's choice of modal verb. There are myriad, almost an infinite numbers of things, events, situations that determine what modal a speaker chooses; facts, opinions, feelings, tastes for, delusions, wishes, dreams, relationships, ... .

When a poll comes out with Obama at 51%, everyone in the world doesn't then fall into "probably/likely" mode. We know this because we hear all manner of modal use associated with such events - He might/may/will/has to/most assuredly will/could/must/probably will win

Quote:
If Obama were 47% and Romney 46% (as they are in one poll now), i.e. both under 50, would you say "they will probably both lose", or "probably neither will win"? On the other hand, if they were at, say, 47% and 42%, tho neither had more than 50% and there were more than enough undecideds to swing the election to one or the other, I'd be inclined to say Obama would probably win. The actual usage, and the complexities and ambiguities of the usage, are nowhere near so precise as you make them out to be.


Your last sentence, up to 'usage' explains it all. But it's certainly not me that has badly confused poll numbers with epistemic [level of certainty] modal meaning.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Sun 3 Jun, 2012 08:02 pm
Quote:
Still, they shouldn't get too cocky on the Hill, because this just means that 79 percent of Americans disapprove of the institution. That's down from a record high 86 percent in December of 2011. We suppose that's like saying in December almost everyone disapproved of Congress and now mostly everyone disapproves.

http://www.npr.org/blogs/itsallpolitics/2012/04/19/150995737/congress-approval-rating-recovers-slightly

0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  2  
Reply Mon 4 Jun, 2012 12:48 am
JTTR, you're the one that's confused. There is in fact dispute as to where "probably" begins, and you don't recognize that fact. The question is not whether people can have different estimates of the probability of something (whether intuitively or computed to the extent that's possible). Rather it is how people with the SAME estimate of the probability of something will describe that differently. And my contention, and that, I think, of Infra, is that "probably" does not start at 51% as you keep maintaining. That's a tossup. So is 50-50, or 52-48. You're still just about as likely to get one outcome as the other. I'd be still a little queasy about saying "probably" til maybe 60-40, or better yet 2-1. Until then, it's still something like "x is a little bit more likely than y", but not "probably". Infra seems to set a higher bar than I do. And I think we "probably" both think 51% does not represent enough of a difference to be "probable", and if ESL teachers are saying that, they are misleading their students to a degree.
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Mon 4 Jun, 2012 06:52 am
@MontereyJack,
Quote:
Until then, it's still something like "x is a little bit more likely than y", but not "probably".


MJ, you are a study in confusion. Smile

'likely' = 'probably'. You've just described, above, the meaning of 'probable'. 50-50 is indeed a tossup. Anything above that points to a greater probability. Above 50%, something is more likely/more probable than not. You, yourself have stated that.

52-48 is not a tossup.

Refer to Dave's post #Post: # 5,000,069 on page one. For once he's right about language and that momentous event should be noted.

0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  2  
Reply Mon 4 Jun, 2012 08:59 am
And there we differ on the meaning and usage of the word, and there we will continue to differ. As does the other poster concerned with this discussion. If you are in fact concerned with the ways actual speakers actually use the language, you will carefully note that fact.
0 Replies
 
izzythepush
 
  1  
Reply Mon 4 Jun, 2012 09:43 am
Probable has the same suffix as postitute so you're likely to get fucked. Possible shares a suffix with postman so it's a bit like being stuck in waiting for a parcel, and the minute you let your guard down and go to the toilet, he's banging on the front door, and before you've got your trousers back on he's off.

That's the difference.
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InfraBlue
 
  2  
Reply Mon 4 Jun, 2012 09:50 am
You, JTT, are a prescriptivist when you say "'probably/likely' occupy greater than 50% to as high as 90-95%. To state the higher range of 'probably/likely' we use intonation or intensifiers like 'very'." That's a prescription. For you "probably" occupies that range of chance of occurrence, and you may use intonation or intensifiers like "very" to state a higher chance of occurrence. What exacerbates your prescriptivism is your trotting out of that ridiculous chart pointing to it in an attempt to show how these words are used. Popular usage--and standard usage, for that matter--doesn't abide by your silly prescriptions.

I'm probably safe to assume that I don't have to spell out for you where exactly you can stick your prescriptivism, charts and all.
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Mon 4 Jun, 2012 09:30 pm
@InfraBlue,
Quote:
You, JTT, are a prescriptivist when you say "'probably/likely' occupy greater than 50% to as high as 90-95%. To state the higher range of 'probably/likely' we use intonation or intensifiers like 'very'." That's a prescription.


You simply don't understand prescription or description, Infra.

Quote:
Popular usage--and standard usage, for that matter--doesn't abide by your silly prescriptions.


You've completely ignored OmSigDavid's description, which matches the various dictionary descriptions I've posted. Everyone knows what 'probable' means. You've just got a burr under your saddle because it was pointed out that you were mistaken with your guesstimate wrt to 'probable'.



0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  2  
Reply Tue 5 Jun, 2012 08:58 am
JTT, "everybody knows what probable means" is not true. You don't. Nor does David. 51% does not mean probable. Take a coin toss. In most people's opiniion (tho not actually) random. You can't call an outcome of either heads or tails probable. Take a coin with a slight bias of 51% heads. You couldn't tell that bias with any certainty from one flip, or five, or ten, or even a hundred, since the outcomes would still be essentially like the same outcome you'd get with a hundred flips of a random coin. Yet you'd say for one flip of that coin you'd probably get heads. But for a hundred flips of the coin it would not be unusual to get, say, 48 heads and 52 tails. I would say that fits no-one's definition of "probably", certainly not mine. I don't think I'd be willing to say I'd "probably get heads" until I got heads consistently about two times out of three, maybe more. I certainly wouldn't start betting large sums of money on single tosses (which is what we get in real life most of the time) until WELL over 51%. And I tend to doubt you would either.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Tue 5 Jun, 2012 09:28 pm
@MontereyJack,
Quote:
But for a hundred flips of the coin it would not be unusual to get, say, 48 heads and 52 tails. I would say that fits no-one's definition of "probably", certainly not mine.


You're confusing two separate issues, MJ. Each flip is a straight 50-50 chance. That's in the range of 'may'.

You don't measure probability after an event occurs. People use modals to describe their feelings before events occur, not after.

You already defined 'probably' in a previous posting - this one, and your definition matches my scale.

Quote:
Until then, it's still something like "x is a little bit more likely than y", but not "probably".


The part in bold is 'probably'. 'probably' is a synonym for 'likely'.

Watch.

Until then, it's still something like "x is a little bit more probable/likely than y",

============

AHD
probable

1. Likely to happen or to be true: War seemed probable in 1938. The home team, far ahead, is the probable winner.

2. Likely but uncertain; plausible.

http://education.yahoo.com/reference/dictionary/entry/probable
====================

These modals have to cover all ranges of certainty. We express strong probability and weak probability all the time.

I'll prrrrrrrobably go, but I'm not sure right now.

He maaaaaaaaay come to the party. [weak]

He may well come to the party. [strong]

I miiiiight build a new house soon. [weak]

I might well build a new house soon. [strong]
0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  2  
Reply Wed 6 Jun, 2012 10:05 am
think about it again, JTT. you've got a coin you know is biased 51% heads, 49% tails. This is a coin whose modal result for 10 tosses would be 5 heads, 5 tails. That's precisely the same modal result you'd get for ten tosses of a random coin. It is indistinguishable from random chance, where you would not be able to say you'd probably get a head. Yet you're saying you'd probably get a head on a flip of the biased coin. Being "slightly more likely" is NOT the same as "probably". It doesn't have enoujgh predictive value to entitle you to use "probably".Your position, and David's, makes no sense.


And, I might add, if you go back to the original question, the "probably" there is not probabilistic in the mathematical sense at all, rather it's a question of summation of several different kinds of medical symptoms and tests, the results of which were apparently somewhat contradictory. It's a relative weighting and evaluation of the relevant evidence, where I doubt you could come up with some kind of number at all.
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Wed 6 Jun, 2012 06:55 pm
@MontereyJack,
Quote:
This is a coin whose modal result ...


Coins don't have modal results. Coins don't know how to use modals. They don't have the foggiest notion as to what they mean. A coin, any coin, cannot ever have any modal results.

Coins being tossed can follow the laws of probability.

People have modal choices. Those choices aren't a predictor of the outcome.

If we have five people betting on your coin toss, number one could say, "I'm almost certain that there will be 10 out of 10 tails". Number 2 says, "There might be 8 of ten heads so I'm betting $10 on each flip". Number 3 says, "There will be 4 heads, then 4 tails and 2 more heads.I'm betting $100 on each toss. Number 4 says, "There won't be any heads or any tails. I'm betting $1 on each toss that the coin stays on its edge". Number 5 says, There probably won't be any heads come up so I'm going to bet on 10 straight tails, 5 bucks a flip.

See, people can choose a modal for whatever reason they want. The reasons only have to make sense to them because modals are our expressions of our feelings about the outcome of any situation.

Coins can't do that.

Quote:
And, I might add, if you go back to the original question, the "probably" there is not probabilistic in the mathematical sense at all, rather it's a question of summation of several different kinds of medical symptoms and tests, the results of which were apparently somewhat contradictory. It's a relative weighting and evaluation of the relevant evidence, where I doubt you could come up with some kind of number at all.


It's not probalistic in the mathematical sense; it's the opinion of two Russian doctors that "Endarteritis luetica with softening" is "very probable" which puts their estimate in the 75%+ range. If the doctors had been asked to give their opinions about how certain they were, they could have expressed it in mathematical terms. That could have come out as, "80% chance; 90% chance; high 70s% chance.

Context:

with the Russian professors Kramer and Kozhevnikov:
 March 20, 1923 – Endarteritis luetica with softening is
very probable, although the diagnosis of lues is uncer-
tain . The next day he examined Lenin in his apartment.
Lenin extended his left hand to him in a friendly
manner. Right hemiplegia and near-complete motor
aphasia with right hemianopsia were diagnosed. The
same afternoon, the full team of consultants met and
discussed endarteritis luetica with secondary softening
as the highly likely diagnosis. However, this diagnosis
remained uncertain as the CSF was normal and Wass-
erman’s test was negative but in tertiary syphilis
Wasserman’s test in the CSF is false negative in 34–
90%, while as in blood tests only 5% are false negatives


Now I realize that this is very confusing for you, MJ. Language is exceedingly difficult stuff.

But you must remember that you yourself described 'probably' in a manner that matched my scale.

Quote:
Until then, it's still something like "x is a little bit more likely than y", but not "probably".


Quote:
Your position, and David's, makes no sense.


It makes perfect sense. I must admit that I'm not terribly disappointed in Dave. He's not honest enough to come out and discuss his statement.

0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  2  
Reply Wed 6 Jun, 2012 10:23 pm
<sigh> didn't they ever teach you about mean, median, and mode in high school mathematics, JTT? The mode is the value that appears most often . In coin flipping the modal result for a series of trials of ten flips of a random coin would be five heads and five tails. The modal result for a biased 51%-49% coin would also be five heads and five tails. It's got nothing to do with modals in language.

And no, I did not agree with your definition. 51% means "very slightly more likely than not", "probably" means "much more likely than not". And I would say "probably" starts somewhere around 70%, as a rough figure. Webster says Probably"= "without much doubt". There is a LOT of doubt at 51%, still alarge amount of doubt at 70%. If you want to keep company with David on this, feel free. I would have thought by now you knew better.
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Thu 7 Jun, 2012 07:11 pm
@MontereyJack,
Quote:
And no, I did not agree with your definition. 51% means "very slightly more likely than not", "probably" means "much more likely than not".


Yes, you most certainly did agree with my definition. You can't help it as you speak the same language as me. 'likely' holds the same meaning as 'probably' and the two describe the range of modal epistemic meaning from +50% to high 80 or low 90 %.
0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  2  
Reply Sat 9 Jun, 2012 04:24 am
well, no, you speak the same language as me. does that somehow mean you must agree with my definition?which is, of course, the correct one.

probabilities, as I assume you know, are not always integers. it is perfectly possible to have event A with a probability of 49.9999999999 % and event B with a probability of 50.0000000001% (or we could have a thousand 9s and 999 zeroes after the decimal point, respectively). now you'd say in a single trial, A is unlikely to occur, but B will probably occur. that's patent nonsense.
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Sat 9 Jun, 2012 11:14 am
@MontereyJack,
Quote:
it is perfectly possible to have event A with a probability of 49.9999999999 % and event B with a probability of 50.0000000001% (or we could have a thousand 9s and 999 zeroes after the decimal point, respectively).


You are badly confusing mathematics with language. Do you also think that a double negative equals a positive?

When the probability is greater than 50% as you describe in Event B, it is more likely/more probable to happen than not. That describes probably/likely because they are the same word.

You said it yourself, MJ.

Quote:
51% means "very slightly more likely than not",


Quote:
now you'd say in a single trial, A is unlikely to occur, but B will probably occur.


Again, you confuse math with language. You keep forgetting that these modals/semi-modals are personal epistemic expressions. From them, we can't discern whether something occurred or not.

They aren't predictors of outcome, they are expressions of opinion as to, oftentimes, a desired outcome. So yes, someone facing a slight +50% chance might easily say, "I'm probably going to win".

You're arguing against nothing, MJ. Your own definition, the one you now seem so reluctant to face, illustrates where 'probably/likely' start.

"She is probably going" equals ""She is likely going" in terms of epistemic modal value.

Neither, of course, predict outcome any more than,

"She is very probably going" // "She is very likely going".

0 Replies
 
MontereyJack
 
  2  
Reply Sat 9 Jun, 2012 11:03 pm
You're still wrong, JTT. "very slightly more likely than not" is not "probably". "Probably" is "quite a lot more likely than not". i.e. an outcome you expect to happen with a fair amount of confidence. Confidence does NOT set in at 51%. If you didn't expect an adverse outcome happening about half the time, you'd be an idiot. That is NOT confidence in an outcome. I think, as the dscriptivist you are, you have to realize that "probably" or "probable" are used by other people in a way you don't share. That's just the fact.
I would even say that "likely" can describe events under 50% probability, e.g. if the probability of rain is say 40% or even 35%,no one would be surprised if it rained (especially if you know anything about New England weather). It's a much weaker expression of possibility than "probable".

And you were the one that tried to mathematicise the concept, you and David, and I told you from the start that it was an attempt at specious precision, and so it's proved to be.
JTT
 
  0  
Reply Sun 10 Jun, 2012 11:33 am
@MontereyJack,
Quote:
You're still wrong, JTT. "very slightly more likely than not" is not "probably".


I've not known you to be this thick, MJ. 'likely' equals 'probably'. They are the same semi-modals.

Quote:
Confidence does NOT set in at 51%.


As I've explained to you already, these modals/periphrastic modals have to cover a lot of territory. You want to establish a level of certainty for everyone, even though you fully realize that there is a difference between,

I probably will be there

spoken in a confident voice, and

I prrrrrrrooobably will be there

spoken as it's written.

That there is a range is abundantly clear. And we have to follow the definition that is for probable/likely/probably, which is,

"something that has a greater chance of happening than not happening".

That, by definition, even your own definition, means everything above 50%.

0 Replies
 
 

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