Sofia wrote:nimh---and Timber--
I see why I used it. He said "invalidate much claim to legitimacy".
You use it as though he (and I by extension) said it invalidated their votes.
Not quite sure what you mean here. (They didn't
get to vote, did they?)
The "culpability on the part of senior UN Member State officials" - if and once proven - "would invalidate much claim to legitimacy of intent posed by those who were in opposition to The US", is what Timber wrote.
I took that to mean that the findings on the bribes would show that "much" of the intent that "those who opposed the US" purported to be acting on, was in fact a fraud. That they wouldnt be able anymore to legitimately claim that the intent of their opposition to the US really
was what they said it was.
There's several assumptions in that statement, imho:
a) the hypothesis that the question of OFF bribes - if senior UN Member State officials
are indeed found culpable - might have influenced the voting intention of those countries that allegedly received them
b) the hypothesis that this influence was in any way overriding or predominant, relative to other motivations those countries had to oppose the US
c) the generalisation that shifts the focus from the countries that allegedly received the bribes to "those who were in opposition to The US", period.
These are the points I tried to tackle.
First off, as Cravens been pointing out, said influence is merely a hypothesis.
Second off, considering that the countries in question (example: France) would have some sincere and heavy-weighing reasons to oppose the US-proposed course of action in any case, how would the additional influence this issue might have had "invalidate" their claim to a legitimate intent in opposing the US?
I mean, if you agree that they had such motivations in any case - whether it be the state's conflicting vision on international politics or the responsibility to not violate the will of the overwhelming majority of one's population or whatever - then those would still stand, OFF issues or not, right?
As long as you cannot make a convincing case that all such supposed motivations were mere smokescreens for the "real" motivation posed by the OFF bribes, then the additional motivation hypothetically posed by those bribes does not "invalidate" the legitimate intent involved in those other motivations at all. At most, they muddle the question - but those other intents still remain unchanged.
Third, even if the OFF bribes had an effect, they would only have had it
on the countries that allegedly received them - whereas "those who were in opposition to The US" - even if we only look at the SC - encompassed quite a few others too.