Can operant conditioning shift to classical conditioning?

Reply Sun 21 Nov, 2010 08:11 am
I've been learning about classical and operant conditioning lately, but there's one thing I don't get. I wonder if it's correct to talk about shifts from operant to classical conditioning when a pattern or behavior becomes ingrained. I mean, if you voluntarily respond in the same way to the same stimuli over and over, it may become automatic and involuntary, in the classical conditioning sense. How would you classify such a behavior? Where this shift from operant to classical conditioning acknowledged by the behaviorists?
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 3,359 • Replies: 4
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Reply Sun 21 Nov, 2010 08:14 am
i'd love to help you, but that damn bell is ringing again and i must go eat dinner
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Reply Sun 21 Nov, 2010 11:00 pm
Not sure if a voluntary response equals operant conditioning. In operant I believe the behavior comes first, followed by the consequence. Maybe I don't understand the question very well.
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Reply Sun 21 Nov, 2010 11:38 pm
This question is out of my league but hopefully you will find a coherent answer to your question. Anyway, here is a useless welcome to a2k.

Psychology is a fascinating field of study. We could use more of that science here at a2k. Well hopefully you will find the dialogue here at a2k worthy of your academic time and curiosity based investment.
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existential potential
Reply Sat 19 Mar, 2011 04:02 pm
I think operant and classical conditioning are two distinct types of conditioning, and I dont think it makes sense to talk of one shifting into another. classical conditioning refers to the association of a stimulus and a response, operant conditioning refers to the association of an action and a consequence.

how would one shift into the other, I'm not sure what you mean?
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